- #1
pellman
- 684
- 5
Suppose I wind up with the relation
[tex]f(x)\delta (x-x')=g(x)\delta (x-x')[/tex]
true for all x'.
Can I safely conclude that f(x) = g(x) (for all x)? Or am I overlooking something? this is a little too close to dividing both sides by zero for comfort.
[tex]f(x)\delta (x-x')=g(x)\delta (x-x')[/tex]
true for all x'.
Can I safely conclude that f(x) = g(x) (for all x)? Or am I overlooking something? this is a little too close to dividing both sides by zero for comfort.
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