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I define a consistent family, F, to be a set of intervals such that if I_1 and I_2 are in F then I_1 and I_2 intersect
Now given two families F and G, we say F is consistent with G provided that each interval from F intersects with each interval from family G.
My question:
If you know that F is consistent with G, does this imply that either F or G is consistent itself?
My gut feeling is that if F is consistent with G then at either F OR G must be consistent..
Now given two families F and G, we say F is consistent with G provided that each interval from F intersects with each interval from family G.
My question:
If you know that F is consistent with G, does this imply that either F or G is consistent itself?
My gut feeling is that if F is consistent with G then at either F OR G must be consistent..