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Hi, I have a question about deriving tensor identities using geodesic coordinates ( coordinates in which one can put the connection to zero ). For the reference, I'm a master student physics and followed courses on general relativity and geometry. I'm busy with an article of Wald and Lee called "local symmetries and constraints", and that's where my question comes from.
In short, Wald defines a collection of tensor fields [tex]\phi[/tex]:
[tex]
\phi : M \rightarrow M^{'}
[/tex]
where M can be seen as our space-time, and M' is finite-dimensional. He then states the following: "In a sufficiently small neighbourhood U' of any point [tex]\phi_{0} \in M^{'}[/tex] we may choose coordinates for M' such that the map [tex]\phi[/tex] can be represented locally as a collection of scalar functions [tex]\phi^{a}[/tex] of the space-time point x. Note that a change of coordinates in U' corresponds to an x-independent field redefinition [tex]\psi^{a} = f^{a}(\phi^{b})[/tex]. "
He uses this to write down the variation of the Lagrangian [tex] L(\phi^{a}, \nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a},\ldots,\nabla_{\mu_{1} }\cdots \nabla_{\mu_{k}}\phi^{a} ; \gamma^{b} ) [/tex],
where [tex]\gamma^{b}[/tex] is any nondynamical background field ( like the minkowski-metric in special relativistic field theories ). He uses only the symmetric part of the derivatives, because every antisymmetric part can be rewritten in terms of the Riemann-tensor. The variation of the Lagrangian should be
[tex]
\delta L = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \phi^{a}} \delta\phi^{a} + \frac{\partial L }{\partial (\nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a})}\delta(\nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a}) + \ldots
[/tex]
where the dots indicate higher derivatives. But it appears to me that he uses his specially chosen coordinates to write this variation as
[tex]
\delta L = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \phi^{a}} \delta\phi^{a} + \frac{\partial L }{\partial (\nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a})}\nabla_{\mu}\delta\phi^{a} + \ldots
[/tex]
and then states that the result doesn't depend on the coordinates, so it holds in general. It's quite obvious that for an arbitrary tensor field the variation and covariant derivative don't commute; you are left with variations in the connection. For example, for the first derivative one has that
[tex]
\delta\nabla\phi^{a} = \nabla\delta\phi^{a} + \sum\phi^{a}\delta\Gamma
[/tex]
in short-hand notation. As long as you treat the space-time metric as nondynamical background field everything is OK, but if we treat the metric as dynamical, this doesn't make any sense to me. Why is it possible to just say "let's choose special coordinates in which we can treat the tensor fields as scalar fields, so that we can commute the partial derivatives and variations, and then transform back to general coordinates and get the covariant derivative and variation commuting? Is this just simply chosing geodesic coordinates? In books like Inverno they use geodesic coordinates to get the identity for the variation of the Riemanntensor, which looks quite the same as this. What they do there, is:
*choose geodesic coordinates where the connection is zero
*write down the Riemann-tensor, where the connection terms are zero, but the derivatives are not
*induce a variation in the connection
*this induces a variation in the Riemann-tensor
*commute the partial derivative and variation
*observe that a tensor equation holds in every frame
*observe that the result holds in every coordinate frame
Could this be what Wald does in his article ?
I hope I have given enough information, because the last time I had the idea that I was pretty unclear in my questioning :) I have the idea that there are some fundamental things about geometry which aren't completely clear to me.
In short, Wald defines a collection of tensor fields [tex]\phi[/tex]:
[tex]
\phi : M \rightarrow M^{'}
[/tex]
where M can be seen as our space-time, and M' is finite-dimensional. He then states the following: "In a sufficiently small neighbourhood U' of any point [tex]\phi_{0} \in M^{'}[/tex] we may choose coordinates for M' such that the map [tex]\phi[/tex] can be represented locally as a collection of scalar functions [tex]\phi^{a}[/tex] of the space-time point x. Note that a change of coordinates in U' corresponds to an x-independent field redefinition [tex]\psi^{a} = f^{a}(\phi^{b})[/tex]. "
He uses this to write down the variation of the Lagrangian [tex] L(\phi^{a}, \nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a},\ldots,\nabla_{\mu_{1} }\cdots \nabla_{\mu_{k}}\phi^{a} ; \gamma^{b} ) [/tex],
where [tex]\gamma^{b}[/tex] is any nondynamical background field ( like the minkowski-metric in special relativistic field theories ). He uses only the symmetric part of the derivatives, because every antisymmetric part can be rewritten in terms of the Riemann-tensor. The variation of the Lagrangian should be
[tex]
\delta L = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \phi^{a}} \delta\phi^{a} + \frac{\partial L }{\partial (\nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a})}\delta(\nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a}) + \ldots
[/tex]
where the dots indicate higher derivatives. But it appears to me that he uses his specially chosen coordinates to write this variation as
[tex]
\delta L = \frac{\partial L}{\partial \phi^{a}} \delta\phi^{a} + \frac{\partial L }{\partial (\nabla_{\mu}\phi^{a})}\nabla_{\mu}\delta\phi^{a} + \ldots
[/tex]
and then states that the result doesn't depend on the coordinates, so it holds in general. It's quite obvious that for an arbitrary tensor field the variation and covariant derivative don't commute; you are left with variations in the connection. For example, for the first derivative one has that
[tex]
\delta\nabla\phi^{a} = \nabla\delta\phi^{a} + \sum\phi^{a}\delta\Gamma
[/tex]
in short-hand notation. As long as you treat the space-time metric as nondynamical background field everything is OK, but if we treat the metric as dynamical, this doesn't make any sense to me. Why is it possible to just say "let's choose special coordinates in which we can treat the tensor fields as scalar fields, so that we can commute the partial derivatives and variations, and then transform back to general coordinates and get the covariant derivative and variation commuting? Is this just simply chosing geodesic coordinates? In books like Inverno they use geodesic coordinates to get the identity for the variation of the Riemanntensor, which looks quite the same as this. What they do there, is:
*choose geodesic coordinates where the connection is zero
*write down the Riemann-tensor, where the connection terms are zero, but the derivatives are not
*induce a variation in the connection
*this induces a variation in the Riemann-tensor
*commute the partial derivative and variation
*observe that a tensor equation holds in every frame
*observe that the result holds in every coordinate frame
Could this be what Wald does in his article ?
I hope I have given enough information, because the last time I had the idea that I was pretty unclear in my questioning :) I have the idea that there are some fundamental things about geometry which aren't completely clear to me.
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