Deriving Jeans' Result from Magnetic Vector Potential

In summary, the conversation is about the use of the complex conjugate term in the magnetic vector potential and its relation to Jeans' result in classical electrodynamics. The speaker is trying to derive this result using a complex vector potential and has successfully evaluated the first term but is stuck on how to evaluate the second term. They are seeking help in incorporating the gauge condition to show that the term vanishes, which would result in the desired outcome.
  • #1
noospace
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I'm trying to get from the magnetic vector potential

[itex]\vec{A}(\vec{x},t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathcal{V}}}\sum_{\vec{k},\alpha=1,2}(c_{\vec{k}\alpha}(t) \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}(\vec{x}) + c.c.)[/itex]

where
[itex]c_{\vec{k}\alpha}(t) = c_{\vec{k}\alpha}(0) e^{-i\omega_{\vec{k}\alpha}t}[/itex]
[itex]\vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}(t) = \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}(0) e^{i \vec{k} \cdot \vec{x}}[/itex]
c.c. = complex conjugate.

to Jeans' result

[itex]H := \frac{1}{2}\int d^3\vec{x} (E^2 + B^2) = \sum_{k,\alpha}\left(\frac{\omega_{k\alpha}}{c}\right)^2 2c_{\vec{k}\alpha}^\ast c_{\vec{k}\alpha}[/itex].

The first question I have is why we add the complex conjugate term at all. In classical electrodynamics, I'm used to dealing with the complex fields?

Tod derive the result, my approach was to define the complex vector potential

[itex]\widetilde{\vec{A}}(\vec{x},t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathcal{V}}}\sum_{\vec{k},\alpha=1,2}c_{\vec{k}\alpha}(t) \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}(\vec{x}) [/itex]

and use the relation

[itex]H = \frac{1}{2}\int d^3\vec{x} \frac{1}{2} (\Re[\widetilde{\vec{E}}\cdot \widetilde{\vec{E}}^\ast]+\Re[\widetilde{\vec{B}}\cdot \widetilde{\vec{B}}^\ast])[/itex]

where [itex]\widetilde{\vec{E}} = - \frac{1}{c}\frac{\partial \widetilde{\vec{A}}}{\partial t}, \;\widetilde{\vec{B}} = \nabla \times \widetilde{\vec{A}}[/itex].

The first term is easy to deal with and gives (after using the normalization [itex]\frac{1}{\mathcal{V}}\int d^3\vec{x} \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}\cdot\vec{u}_{\vec{k'}\alpha'}^\ast = \delta_{\vec{k}\vec{k}'}\delta_{\alpha\alpha'}[/itex]):

[itex]\frac{1}{4}\int d^3 \vec{x}\Re[\widetilde{\vec{E}}\cdot \widetilde{\vec{E}}^\ast] = \frac{1}{4}\sum_{k,\alpha}\left(\frac{\omega_{k\alpha}}{c}\right)^2 c_{\vec{k}\alpha}^\ast c_{\vec{k}\alpha}[/itex]

The second term is a bit more problematic. Using the identity

[itex](\vec{k} \times \vec{u})\cdot(\vec{k}' \times \vec{u}') = \vec{k} \cdot\vec{k}' \vec{u} \cdot\vec{u}' - \vec{k} \cdot{u}' \vec{k}' \cdot\vec{u}[/itex]

I get

[itex]\widetilde{\vec{B}} = \nabla \times \widetilde{\vec{A}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{V}}\sum_{\vec{k},\alpha} i c_{\vec{k}\alpha} \vec{k} \times \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}[/itex]

so

[itex]\frac{1}{2}\int d^3\vec{x} \frac{1}{2}\Re[\widetilde{\vec{B}}\cdot \widetilde{\vec{B}}^\ast] [/itex]

[itex]= \frac{1}{4}\sum_{\vec{k},\alpha=1,2}\left(\frac{\omega_{\vec{k}\alpha}}{c}\right)^2 c_{\vec{k}\alpha}^\ast c_{\vec{k}\alpha} - \frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{V}\sum_{\vec{k},\vec{k}',\alpha,\alpha'}\int d^3 \vec{x} c^\ast_{\vec{k}'\alpha'}c_{\vec{k}\alpha} (\vec{k}\cdot \vec{u}^\ast_{\vec{k}'\alpha'})(\vec{k'}\cdot \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}) [/itex]

where I have used the normalization condition to evaluate the first term. I'm stuck on how to evaluate this last integral. I know that I have to use the Gauge condition that [itex]\vec{k} \cdot \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha} = 0[/itex] but I'm not sure how to incorporate it.

Any help would be greatly appreciated.
 
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  • #2
I suppose what I want to show is that the term

[itex]\sum_{\vec{k},\vec{k}',\alpha,\alpha'}\int d^3 \vec{x} c^\ast_{\vec{k}'\alpha'}c_{\vec{k}\alpha} (\vec{k}\cdot \vec{u}^\ast_{\vec{k}'\alpha'})(\vec{k'}\cdot \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}) [/itex]

vanihses. For then,

[itex]\frac{1}{2}\int d^3 \vec{x}\frac{1}{2}\Re[\widetilde{\vec{E}}\cdot\widetilde{\vec{E}}^\ast + \widetilde{\vec{B}}\cdot\widetilde{\vec{B}}^\ast] = \frac{1}{2}\sum_{\vec{k},\alpha}\left(\frac{\omega_{\vec{k}\alpha}}{c}\right)^2 c^\ast_{\vec{k}\alpha}c_{\vec{k}\alpha}[/itex]

which is uncannily similar to what I set out to show. I know [itex]\vec{k} \cdot\vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}[/itex] so I can reduce the sum to a sum over [itex]\sum_{\vec{k} \neq \vec{k}',\alpha,\alpha}[/itex]
 
  • #3


I would like to provide some clarification and guidance on your approach to deriving Jeans' result from the given magnetic vector potential.

Firstly, the addition of the complex conjugate term is necessary because we are dealing with complex fields in quantum electrodynamics, which is the theory that this result is derived from. In classical electrodynamics, we typically deal with real fields, but in quantum electrodynamics, we must use complex fields to accurately describe the behavior of particles.

Secondly, your approach to defining the complex vector potential and using the relation for H is correct. However, the second term in the integral for H can be simplified by using the gauge condition \vec{k} \cdot \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha} = 0. This condition is necessary to ensure that the vector potential is properly normalized and avoids any mathematical issues with diverging integrals.

Using this condition, the second term in the integral becomes:

\frac{1}{4}\frac{1}{V}\sum_{\vec{k},\vec{k}',\alpha,\alpha'}\int d^3 \vec{x} c^\ast_{\vec{k}'\alpha'}c_{\vec{k}\alpha} (\vec{k}\cdot \vec{u}^\ast_{\vec{k}'\alpha'})(\vec{k'}\cdot \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha}) = 0

since \vec{k} \cdot \vec{u}_{\vec{k}\alpha} = 0. This simplification allows us to arrive at the desired result:

H := \frac{1}{2}\int d^3\vec{x} (E^2 + B^2) = \sum_{k,\alpha}\left(\frac{\omega_{k\alpha}}{c}\right)^2 2c_{\vec{k}\alpha}^\ast c_{\vec{k}\alpha}.

I hope this helps clarify the derivation process and the role of the complex conjugate term in the result. Keep up the good work in your studies!
 

1. What is Jeans' result?

Jeans' result is a mathematical formula derived by physicist James Jeans that describes the distribution of velocities of particles in a self-gravitating, rotating system, such as a galaxy or a gas cloud. It is often used to study the stability and dynamics of these systems.

2. What is the magnetic vector potential?

The magnetic vector potential is a mathematical concept used in electromagnetism to describe the magnetic field in terms of a vector field. It is often denoted by the symbol A and is related to the magnetic field B by the equation B = ∇ x A.

3. How is Jeans' result derived from the magnetic vector potential?

Jeans' result can be derived from the magnetic vector potential by using the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, which describes the distribution of speeds of particles in a gas at a given temperature. By considering a self-gravitating, rotating gas cloud, the distribution of velocities can be related to the magnetic vector potential, resulting in Jeans' equation.

4. What is the significance of deriving Jeans' result from the magnetic vector potential?

Deriving Jeans' result from the magnetic vector potential allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the dynamics of self-gravitating, rotating systems. It also allows for the incorporation of magnetic fields into the study of these systems, which is important in astrophysics and cosmology.

5. Are there any limitations to deriving Jeans' result from the magnetic vector potential?

One limitation is that it assumes a system in equilibrium, which may not always be the case. Additionally, it does not take into account the effects of turbulence, which can play a significant role in the dynamics of these systems. Therefore, it should be used with caution and in conjunction with other theories and observations.

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