- #1
adphysics
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I understand the concept of a gauge transform, and I understand why it is that the magnetic field would be unchanged with the addition of the gradient of an arbitrary scalar potential onto the magnetic vector potential A, and I understand why the electric field E would be invariant under the following pair of gauge transforms:
phi=>phi+ (d(psi)/dt) and A=>A-grad(psi) where psi and phi are scalar potentials, A is the magnetic vector potential, and E=-grad(phi)-dA/dt.
What I don't understand is why we are completely free to choose the divergence of A in the time dependant case. It won't affect the magnetic field, but surely it will affect the electric field?
phi=>phi+ (d(psi)/dt) and A=>A-grad(psi) where psi and phi are scalar potentials, A is the magnetic vector potential, and E=-grad(phi)-dA/dt.
What I don't understand is why we are completely free to choose the divergence of A in the time dependant case. It won't affect the magnetic field, but surely it will affect the electric field?