Uniform convergence and improper integration

In summary, the homework statement is saying that if g and f_n are defined on [1,+infinity), are Riamann-integrable on [t,T] whenever 1<=t<T<+infinity, and f_n->f uniformly on every compact subset of [1,+infinity), then lim_{n->\infty} \int^{\infty}_{1} g(x)dx<\infty. Proving that h_n converges uniformly to h on [1,+infinity] is the tricky part.
  • #1
boombaby
130
0

Homework Statement


Suppose g and f_n are defined on [1,+infinity), are Riamann-integrable on [t,T] whenever 1<=t<T<+infinity. |f_n|<=g, f_n->f uniformly on every compact subset of [1,+infinity), and
[tex]\int^{\infty}_{1} g(x)dx<\infty[/tex].
Prove that
[tex]lim_{n->\infty} \int^{\infty}_{1} f_{n}(x)dx =\int^{\infty}_{1} f(x)dx[/tex]


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


If I let [tex]h_{n}(u)=\int^{u}_{1} f_{n}(x)dx[/tex], then [tex]lim_{n->\infty} h_{n}(u)=\int^{u}_{1} f(x)dx=h(u)[/tex] for each u in [1,+infinity). it is equivalent to prove that [tex]lim_{n->\infty}lim_{u->\infty} h_{n}(u)=lim_{u->\infty}lim_{n->\infty} h_n(u)[/tex]. This is true if h_n converges uniformly to h on [1,+infinity). This is where I got stuck. Actually, I'm not sure if h_n indeed converges uniformly...Or, is there any other way to prove it? Any hint? Thanks a lot!
 
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  • #2
Well. I think you can prove uniform convergence of [itex]h_n[/itex] directly.
You want to show that [itex]\forall \varepsilon >0: \exist N>0[/itex] such that whenever n>N [itex]|h_n(u)-h(u)|\leq\varepsilon\quad \forall u\in[1,\infty)[/itex], right?
First pick [itex]u_0\in[1,\infty)[/itex] such that [itex]\int_{u_0}^\infty{dxg(x)}\leq \varepsilon/4[/itex]. Then pick an N with [itex]|f_n(x)-f(x)|\leq\frac{\varepsilon}{2(u_0-1)}[/itex] for all n>N and [itex]x\in[1,u_0][/itex] This N should do the job.

You can write for any u
[tex]
|h_n(u)-h(u)|=\left|\int_1^u{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|\leq\left|\int_1^{u_0\wedge u}{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|+\chi_{\{u_0<u\}}\left|\int_{u_0}^u{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|
[/tex]

For n>N the first term is clearly bounded by [itex]\varepsilon/2[/itex]. The second term is only there if [itex]u>u_0[/itex]. In this case you can use [itex]|f_n(x)|<=g(x)[/itex] for all x (which implies [itex]|f(x)|<=g(x)[/itex] so
[tex]
\left|\int_{u_0}^u{dx[f_n(x)-f(x)]}\right|\leq 2\int_{u_0}^u{dxg(x)}\leq 2\int_{u_0}^\infty{dxg(x)}\leq\varepsilon/2
[/tex]
where the last inequality holds by the choice of [itex]u_0[/itex].
 
Last edited:
  • #3
This is brilliant, thanks!
u_0 is exactly what I didn't get! Thanks again!:)
 
  • #4
boombaby said:
This is brilliant, thanks!
Don't be exaggerating:smile:
 

What is uniform convergence?

Uniform convergence is a type of convergence in which a sequence of functions converges to a single function at a consistent rate over its entire domain. This means that as the input values increase, the output values also approach each other at a constant pace.

How is uniform convergence different from pointwise convergence?

Pointwise convergence is a type of convergence in which a sequence of functions converges to a single function at each point in its domain. This means that as the input values increase, the output values may approach each other at different rates or not at all. In contrast, uniform convergence guarantees that the sequence of functions converges at a consistent rate over the entire domain.

What is an improper integral?

An improper integral is an integral where one or both of the limits of integration is infinite or the integrand is unbounded at one or more points in the integration interval. This type of integral requires special techniques to evaluate, such as taking limits or using convergence tests.

How does uniform convergence relate to improper integration?

Uniform convergence is often used to determine the convergence of improper integrals. If a sequence of functions converges uniformly, then the corresponding improper integral will also converge. This can be a useful tool for evaluating improper integrals that are difficult to solve directly.

What is the Cauchy criterion for uniform convergence?

The Cauchy criterion states that a sequence of functions converges uniformly if and only if for any given positive number epsilon, there exists a corresponding natural number N such that for all values of n and m greater than or equal to N, the difference between the nth and mth functions is less than epsilon for all values of x in the domain. This criterion is often used to prove the uniform convergence of a sequence of functions.

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