- #1
EmmaSaunders1
- 45
- 0
Hi,
could someone possible make something clear for me - I have come across this notation for a binomial PMF formed from an underlying beurnolli distribution:
PS_{n}(\bar{p}n)\sim\sqrt{\frac{1}{2\pi n\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}}exp
[n\varnothing(p,\bar{p}] ,\\
PS_{n}(\bar{p}n)=PMF-of-binomial-dist-from-underlying-binary-PMF\\
where,pz(1)=p>0,pz(0)=q>0,q=(1-p)
=I can understand that this is the binomial PMF with variance = npq, and the square root term is easy to understand. I don't understand the term raised to the exponential and how one can get from the beurnolli distribution to this binomial distribution, could someone please clarify
could someone possible make something clear for me - I have come across this notation for a binomial PMF formed from an underlying beurnolli distribution:
PS_{n}(\bar{p}n)\sim\sqrt{\frac{1}{2\pi n\bar{p}(1-\bar{p})}}exp
[n\varnothing(p,\bar{p}] ,\\
PS_{n}(\bar{p}n)=PMF-of-binomial-dist-from-underlying-binary-PMF\\
where,pz(1)=p>0,pz(0)=q>0,q=(1-p)
=I can understand that this is the binomial PMF with variance = npq, and the square root term is easy to understand. I don't understand the term raised to the exponential and how one can get from the beurnolli distribution to this binomial distribution, could someone please clarify