- #1
eljose79
- 1,518
- 1
perhapas it sounds contradictory but this is an example:
let suppose we have a continuous probability distribution given by r(x) then the maximum value (the most probable ) is given by
dr(x)/dt=0 then if we make several meassures and have some numbers by taken the mean value ...would we have the exact value of it?..yes you always have an error but if it goes as g(n) with
n=infinite g(n)=0 then the error would be 0 so the theory is exact..(i think this happens in statistical mechanics)..why not in quantum physics?..
let suppose we have a continuous probability distribution given by r(x) then the maximum value (the most probable ) is given by
dr(x)/dt=0 then if we make several meassures and have some numbers by taken the mean value ...would we have the exact value of it?..yes you always have an error but if it goes as g(n) with
n=infinite g(n)=0 then the error would be 0 so the theory is exact..(i think this happens in statistical mechanics)..why not in quantum physics?..