What is the Proof of sup(A)+1 as the Least Upper Bound for B=A+1?

In summary, we are asked to prove that for a non-empty, bounded set A, if we define B as A+1, then the supremum of B is equal to the supremum of A plus 1. One way to approach this is by showing that the supremum of A plus 1 is an upper bound for B, and then proving that it is the least upper bound.
  • #1
ak123456
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Homework Statement


Let A [tex]\in[/tex]R be a non-empty,bounded set .Define
B=A+1=[tex]\left\{[/tex]a+1:a[tex]\in[/tex]A[tex]\right\}[/tex] Prove that sup(B) =sup(A)+1

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


let a[tex]\in[/tex]A b[tex]\in[/tex]B s[tex]\in[/tex]R because B=A+1=[tex]\left\{[/tex]a+1:a[tex]\in[/tex]A[tex]\right\}[/tex]
so b=a+1 [tex]\forall[/tex]b[tex]\in[/tex]B s>= b [tex]\rightarrow[/tex] s>=a+1 , s>=a so sup(B) =sup(A)+1
i thought that is too simple in my way , any other ways?
 
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  • #2


From the definition of [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]B[/itex], if [itex]\mathrm{sup}(A) = \alpha[/itex] then we clearly have that [itex]\alpha + 1 \geq a + 1 = b[/itex]. This proves that [itex]\mathrm{sup}(A) + 1[/itex] is an upperbound for [itex]B[/itex]. Now can you prove that this number must be the least upper bound?
 
  • #3


jgens said:
From the definition of [itex]A[/itex] and [itex]B[/itex], if [itex]\mathrm{sup}(A) = \alpha[/itex] then we clearly have that [itex]\alpha + 1 \geq a + 1 = b[/itex]. This proves that [itex]\mathrm{sup}(A) + 1[/itex] is an upperbound for [itex]B[/itex]. Now can you prove that this number must be the least upper bound?

i see ,thx
 

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