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Je m'appelle
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It is known that magnetic fields do no work at a moving particle, all they can do is to change the particle's direction.
So, I've been trying to understand a step on the mathematical explanation, but I'm stuck.
I'm using this source: http://www.tutorvista.com/content/physics/physics-iv/moving-charges-magnetism/lorentz-force.php
What I don't get is the step below
[tex]m \frac{d}{dt} (v \cdot v) = m(v} \cdot \frac{d v}{dt} + \frac{d v}{dt} \cdot v) = 2m v\frac{d v}{dt}[/tex]
Shouldn't it be
[tex]2m v \cdot \frac{d v}{dt} = 2m v \frac{d v}{dt} cos \theta[/tex]
What happened to the cosine? The dot product simply disappeared, it's like he considered [tex]cos \theta = 1 [/tex], but as far as I understood it, the cosine is actually zero and not one.
OBS: 'v' is a vector.
So, I've been trying to understand a step on the mathematical explanation, but I'm stuck.
I'm using this source: http://www.tutorvista.com/content/physics/physics-iv/moving-charges-magnetism/lorentz-force.php
What I don't get is the step below
[tex]m \frac{d}{dt} (v \cdot v) = m(v} \cdot \frac{d v}{dt} + \frac{d v}{dt} \cdot v) = 2m v\frac{d v}{dt}[/tex]
Shouldn't it be
[tex]2m v \cdot \frac{d v}{dt} = 2m v \frac{d v}{dt} cos \theta[/tex]
What happened to the cosine? The dot product simply disappeared, it's like he considered [tex]cos \theta = 1 [/tex], but as far as I understood it, the cosine is actually zero and not one.
OBS: 'v' is a vector.
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