- #1
krete
- 15
- 0
It is well known that there does NOT exist a homeomorphism between R^m and R^n if m>n. My question is whether it is possible to construct a homeomorphism between R^m (as a whole) and a subset of R^n (note that we also suppose that m>n)?
Intuitively, it is impossible. Is my intuition right? Thank you for your replying in advance!
Intuitively, it is impossible. Is my intuition right? Thank you for your replying in advance!