|Feb4-13, 03:21 PM||#1|
Expected Value and First Order Stochastic Dominance
Given two random variables X and Y, if I have established the relationship E[X]>=E[Y], does this necessarily imply that X must have a first-order-stochastic dominance over Y?
I know that first order stochastic dominance implies that the mean value of the dominating random variable be greater than the other variable but I am trying to find out whether the reverse must hold.
Thanks in advance.
|Feb4-13, 03:30 PM||#2|
|Feb4-13, 03:46 PM||#3|
Great! Thanks a lot. That's what I guessed too but just wanted to make sure. I appreciate your fast reply.
|means, stochastic dominance|
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