- #1
iampaul
- 93
- 0
I have this example from my physics books which says:
If a skater pushes against the wall and the skater moves, the wall does no work and the motion of the skater only results from the internal work of the skater. It also says that the wall does no work because there is no motion of its point of application, and this part is what i don't understand.
I am thinking that if the force from the wall acts on the skater, then the point of application of the force exerted by the wall is the skater. Since the skater did move, then there is motion of the point of application of the force from the wall.
Although I agree that the wall must have done no work, what confuses me is the reason why, which is about the motion of the point of application as the book tells.
Can anybody please help clear things up.Any help will be greatly appreciated, thanks!
If a skater pushes against the wall and the skater moves, the wall does no work and the motion of the skater only results from the internal work of the skater. It also says that the wall does no work because there is no motion of its point of application, and this part is what i don't understand.
I am thinking that if the force from the wall acts on the skater, then the point of application of the force exerted by the wall is the skater. Since the skater did move, then there is motion of the point of application of the force from the wall.
Although I agree that the wall must have done no work, what confuses me is the reason why, which is about the motion of the point of application as the book tells.
Can anybody please help clear things up.Any help will be greatly appreciated, thanks!