- #1
DavidWi
- 10
- 0
Ok, I was thinking today during my calculus class about taking the integral of a function in a different way. Let's assume for a second that we want to find the area between the function and the y axis, on the interval x = [0, 2] of the function y = 2x.
What I was thinking I could do, is take the integral of y.
(y^2)/2 then substitute 2x in for y, since y = 2x.
(2x)^2 / 2
That would give us the integral between the function and the y-axis and we would be able to put in the interval for x.
But it didn't work... I got the wrong answer? Why doesn't this work? I think it should work.
Thanks.
What I was thinking I could do, is take the integral of y.
(y^2)/2 then substitute 2x in for y, since y = 2x.
(2x)^2 / 2
That would give us the integral between the function and the y-axis and we would be able to put in the interval for x.
But it didn't work... I got the wrong answer? Why doesn't this work? I think it should work.
Thanks.