- #1
Chen
- 977
- 1
How would one go about solving this?
[tex]\int_{ - \infty }^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/\left| q \right|}}dq}[/tex]
Or,
[tex]\int_0^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/q}}dq} [/tex]
With [tex]C > 0[/tex] obviously.
I came across this in a physics problem. A solution exists (verified by Mathematica).
Thanks,
Chen
[tex]\int_{ - \infty }^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/\left| q \right|}}dq}[/tex]
Or,
[tex]\int_0^\infty {{1 \over {q^2 + C/q}}dq} [/tex]
With [tex]C > 0[/tex] obviously.
I came across this in a physics problem. A solution exists (verified by Mathematica).
Thanks,
Chen