- #1
An1MuS
- 38
- 0
Hi,
When we have [tex]\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=0[/tex]
and we get
[tex]r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r}=c_1[/tex]
To get there, did we do this
[tex]\int\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r}) dr=\int 0 dr[/tex]
or
[tex]\partial (r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=0\partial r[/tex]
[tex]\int \partial (r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=\int 0\partial r[/tex]
and why?
Thanks in advance
When we have [tex]\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=0[/tex]
and we get
[tex]r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r}=c_1[/tex]
To get there, did we do this
[tex]\int\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r}) dr=\int 0 dr[/tex]
or
[tex]\partial (r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=0\partial r[/tex]
[tex]\int \partial (r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=\int 0\partial r[/tex]
and why?
Thanks in advance