- #1
HyperbolicMan
- 14
- 0
"let x be a real number. Then x^2+1 does not equal 0."
"For all x in lR, x^2+1 does not equal 0"
As far as I know, both of these statements mean exactly the same thing. From a grammatical perspective, in the first statement, x is singular ("a real number"), while in the second, x appears to be plural (preceded by "all" which implies more than one). Is one way 'more correct' than the other, or is there some principle in mathematics that equates the two? Instinctively, I feel like the second is better because it sounds more general, but the first one is easier to visualize.
"For all x in lR, x^2+1 does not equal 0"
As far as I know, both of these statements mean exactly the same thing. From a grammatical perspective, in the first statement, x is singular ("a real number"), while in the second, x appears to be plural (preceded by "all" which implies more than one). Is one way 'more correct' than the other, or is there some principle in mathematics that equates the two? Instinctively, I feel like the second is better because it sounds more general, but the first one is easier to visualize.