- #1
dmuthuk
- 41
- 1
We all know that the axiom of choice is equivalent to the existence of a well-ordering for any set. And, this of course implies that [tex]\mathbb{R}[/tex] can be well-ordered, in particular. However, how do we know that the axiom of choice is actually needed in the case of the reals? That is, if we remove the axiom of choice, do the reals become a set that cannot be well-ordered? Furthermore, is the axiom of choice needed for every uncountable set?