Do you think that Fermat had a genuine proof for his last theorem?

In summary: He often told people he had proofs to problems, and then didn't tell them the proof on purpose. Just so he could watch them fail and feel better about himself.

Do you think Fermat had a Genuine proof for his last "theorem"?

  • Total voters
    24
  • #1
Georgepowell
179
0
Yes or No?

And why do you think that?
 
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  • #2
I think he had a proof he believed in. Whether it was correct or not I couldn't say, but I don't doubt Fermat's belief that he had one.
 
  • #3
No, definitely not. It was barely proved using the latest mathematical achievements that Fermat definitely didn't know. Unless mathematicians overlooked a simpler possibility of proving it, which I doubt. As far as I know, however, mathematics so advanced was required to prove there were no solutions to the theorem, that Fermat with only beginnings of calculus as his tools could not possibly have a proof.
 
  • #4
The margins of Fermat's book were not large enough to contain Wiles' proof, so it is likely that that was the proof Fermat had in mind.
 
  • #5
jimmysnyder said:
The margins of Fermat's book were not large enough to contain Wiles' proof, so it is likely that that was the proof Fermat had in mind.

Are you an idiot or are you joking?
 
  • #6
Georgepowell said:
Are you an idiot or are you joking?

:rofl: Do you really have to ask?
 
  • #7
Kurdt said:
:rofl: Do you really have to ask?
Well?
 
  • #8
jimmysnyder said:
The margins of Fermat's book were not large enough to contain Wiles' proof, so it is likely that that was the proof Fermat had in mind.

:rofl::rofl::rofl:
 
  • #9
Not a chance. Fermat had plenty of time to publish (or at least write) such a proof, but he didn't. Instead, he proved only a special case of FLT... a good indication he changed his mind about the correctness of the proof he had in mind.
 
  • #10
I don't doubt that he was able to prove it successfully for the first few integers([itex]x^3+y^3 \neq z^3[/itex] etc), but if he believed that he had a general proof, it was probably flawed.
 
  • #11
nooo way unless there's a really simple proof which is unlikly...
 
  • #12
Wouldn't he have published it if he did find out the answer?
 
  • #13
bassplayer142 said:
Wouldn't he have published it if he did find out the answer?

He didn't publish the proofs of his other theorems. And they all turned out to be correct. From what I have heard, he didn't do maths to help the mathematical community. He just did it for fun, and as soon as he got the essence of a problem, he went on to do another one without checking it.

He often told people he had proofs to problems, and then didn't tell them the proof on purpose. Just so he could watch them fail and feel better about himself.

So he wouldn't of published it, he never published his proofs.
 
  • #14
But then why would he publish a proof for a specific case (n= 3?) if he had a "simple" proof that would work for all n?

I think what happened is what happens to all of us- he thought that the had a brilliant, simple, proof that, when he actually started working out the details, turned out not to work.
 
  • #15
I tend to favor the theory that his "truly marvelous proof" alluded to was just a proof for the n=3 case. At least in the common english translation it seems easy to interpret Fermat's famous margin note such that the "or in general..." was just an aside and Fermat was not even trying to say he actually had a proof for the general case. I guess that leaves me voting no.
 
  • #16
The first time i heard about this theorem I was probably 13 or 14 and I mistakenly thought it was saying a^n + b^o cannot equal c^p. for every number bigger than two. I knew that couldn't be true and actually spent a little while proving it wasn't true. Then got into an argument with my teacher telling her she was wrong.
 
  • #17
Was it possible that he never even claimed he had a general proof? And we just misinterpreted him?
 

1. What is Fermat's Last Theorem?

Fermat's Last Theorem is a mathematical conjecture proposed by French mathematician Pierre de Fermat in the 17th century. It states that no three positive integers a, b, and c can satisfy the equation an + bn = cn for any integer value of n greater than 2.

2. Did Fermat have a genuine proof for his Last Theorem?

There is no conclusive evidence that Fermat had a genuine proof for his Last Theorem. In fact, he himself claimed to have a proof, but it was never found among his papers after his death. Many mathematicians have attempted to prove the theorem, but it was not until 1995 that Andrew Wiles provided a complete proof.

3. Why was Fermat's Last Theorem considered unsolvable for so long?

The complexity of Fermat's Last Theorem lies in the fact that it involves an infinite number of possible combinations of values for a, b, and c. It was considered unsolvable for so long because there was no known method or equation that could be used to solve it.

4. How did Andrew Wiles prove Fermat's Last Theorem?

Andrew Wiles, a British mathematician, spent seven years working on a proof for Fermat's Last Theorem. He used advanced mathematical techniques, including elliptic curves and modular forms, to prove the theorem for all values of n greater than 2. His proof was published in 1995 and has been widely accepted by the mathematical community.

5. Why is Fermat's Last Theorem important?

Fermat's Last Theorem is important because it is one of the most famous unsolved mathematical problems in history. Its proof has challenged and inspired mathematicians for centuries, and its eventual solution has provided valuable insights into number theory and mathematical techniques. It also serves as a reminder that even seemingly impossible problems can be solved with persistence and ingenuity.

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