Are these proofs correct(bounded and finite variation).

In summary, the first two problems are proving that a function is of finite variation and showing that a linear combination of two functions is of finite variation. The last problem is proving that a function is of finite variation for all t in a given range.
  • #1
Azael
257
1
First of all if you read this and the latex is all messed upp I am probably working on getting it right so please be patient till I get it right. No need to post a comment that it doesn't work. Thanks :wink:

I haven't taken a pure maths class in over 2,5 years so I can hardly remember how to write proofs:yuck:

Problem 1.

Let [tex] C \in \mathbb{R} [/tex] be a arbitrary number. Show that the function
[tex] f:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb{R} [/tex]

given by [tex] f(t)=cos(ct) [/tex]

is of bounded variation. i.e it satisifies the condition

[tex]Sup V_f (t) < \infty [/tex]

Proof.

[tex] V_f (t) = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }
\sum_{k=1}^n |{(f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1}^n)}| [/tex]

with [tex] \pi_n : t_0^n < ... < t_n^n [/tex]

Since [tex] Cos(ct) [/tex]

is differentiable we can rewrite [tex]V_f (t)[/tex] with the mean value theorem

[tex] V_f (t) = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }
\sum_{k=1}^n \|{(f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1}^n)}| = \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n } \sum_{k=1}^n |f^{'} (G)| (t_k^n - t_{k-1}^n) [/tex]

wich is equal to(according to the definition of the riemann integral)

[tex] \int_{a}^{b} |f^{'} (x)| dx [/tex]

with [tex]f(x)=f(t)=cos(ct) [/tex] we get

[tex] \int_{a}^{b} |-csin(ct)| dx \leq \int_{a}^{b} |c| dx = |c|(b-a)[/tex]

So

[tex] Sup V_f (t) = Sup |c|(b-a) <\infty [/tex]
 
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  • #2
problem 2
show that the function [tex]g:[0,\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex]
given by [tex]g(t)=sin(ct)[/tex] is of finite variation.

In the same manner as in problem one we get

[tex]V_f ((0,t)) = \int_{0}^{t} |f'(t)|dt = \int_{0}^{t} |ccos(ct)|dt \leq \int_{0}^{t} |c|dt=|c|t<\infty [/tex] for all t equal to or larger than zero. (how do I get the equal to or larger than symbol in latex? and the "for all" symbol?)

wich shows that the function is of finite variation
 
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  • #3
problem 3
If the functions [tex]f,g:[0,\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex] are of finite variation, show that any linear combination of them,
[tex]\alpha f + \beta g:[0,\infty) \rightarrow \mathbb{R}[/tex] [tex] \alpha,\beta \in \mathbb{R}[/tex] are of finite variation.

[tex]V_{f,g} ((0,t))=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |{\alpha f(t_k^n)+\beta g(t_k^n)-\alpha f(t_{k-1}^n)-\beta g(t_{k-1}^n)|=[/tex]
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n| \alpha (f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1})+\beta (g(t_k^n)-g(t_{k-1})| \leq[/tex]

(using triangle inequality)

[tex] \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |\alpha (f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1})|+|\beta (g(t_k^n)-g(t_{k-1})| = [/tex]
(can I just move the alpha and beta outside of the lim,sup and sum like this?)
[tex]|\alpha| \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |(f(t_k^n)-f(t_{k-1})|+ |\beta|\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}Sup_{ t_k^n,t_{k-1}^n \in \pi_n }\sum_{k=1}^n |(g(t_k^n)-g(t_{k-1})| =[/tex]

[tex]|\alpha| V_f((0,t))+|\beta| V_f((0,t)) <\infty[/tex] for all t equal to or larger than zero since [tex]V_f((0,t))<\infty[/tex] and [tex]V_g((0,t)) <\infty[/tex] for all t equal to or larger than zero.
 
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  • #4
I hope I haven't made any error that makes the whole thing incomprehensible :(
 
  • #5
For the first question, the basic idea of the proof seems correct, although I'm not sure how Vf is a function of t, it seems more a function from intervals into the real numbers. And I'm not sure what you're taking the sup of when you write sup Vf(t) or sup |c|(b-a). Besides these details it looks correct. For the second, do they mean "of bounded variation on the set [0,t], for all t in R"? If so, this is just a special case of the last problem. The third proof seems correct as well.
 
  • #6
yes you are quite correct I just made some errors :)

Thanks a lot for checking, appreciate it.
 

1. What is the difference between bounded and finite variation?

Bounded variation refers to a function that has a finite range, meaning it does not have any extreme values. Finite variation, on the other hand, refers to a function that has a finite total change over a given interval.

2. How do I know if a proof for bounded and finite variation is correct?

A proof for bounded and finite variation is correct if it follows the necessary steps and logic, and if it is supported by mathematical principles and theories.

3. What is the importance of studying bounded and finite variation?

Studying bounded and finite variation is important in understanding the behavior of functions and their limits, as well as in various applications such as economics, physics, and engineering.

4. Can a function have both bounded and finite variation?

Yes, a function can have both bounded and finite variation. This means that it has a finite range and a finite total change over a given interval.

5. Are there any real-life examples of functions with bounded and finite variation?

Yes, there are many real-life examples of functions with bounded and finite variation. One example is the stock market, where prices have a finite range and the change in prices over a given time period is finite.

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