Magnetic field above a thin charged disc

In summary, the general form of the Biot-Savart law can be generalized to a 2-D surface current density, and the form is the same. The magnetic field of each loop is given by the equation \vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega (\frac{2z^{2} + R^2}{\sqrt{z^{2} + R^{2}}} - 2z).
  • #1
russdot
16
0

Homework Statement


A thin disc of radius R carries a surface charge [tex]\sigma[/tex]. It rotates with angular frequency [tex]\omega[/tex] about the z axis, which is perpendicular to the disc and through its center. What is B along the z axis?


Homework Equations


General Biot-Savart law:
B(x) = [tex]\frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}\int\frac{J(x') x (x-x')}{|x-x'|}d^{3}x'[/tex]

K [tex]\equiv \frac{dI}{dl_{perpendicular}}[/tex]
K = [tex]\sigma[/tex]v


The Attempt at a Solution


I'm wondering if the general form Biot-Savart law can be 'generalized' to a 2-D surface current density K instead, and if the form would be the same?
Giving:
B(x) = [tex]\frac{\mu_{0}}{4\pi}\int\frac{K(x') x (x-x')}{|x-x'|}d^{2}x'[/tex]
 
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  • #2
I don't follow your equations, you aren't using a standard notation. Regardless, you don't need to use a surface current. You can treat every infinitesimal interval of radius dr as a loop of current. Integrate the equation for field from a current loop over r from 0 to R
 
  • #3
Hi russdot, try using \vec{B} instead of B in your LaTeX equations, and put the whole equation in LaTeX to make it easier to read.

The Biot-Savart Law for a surface current is:

[tex]\vec{B}(\vec{r})=\frac{\mu _0}{4 \pi} \int \frac{\vec{K}(\vec{r'}) \times \widehat{\vec{r}-\vec{r'}}}{|\vec{r}-\vec{r'}|^2} d^3r'[/tex]

Such integrals are tedious to evaluate, so if you are allowed to use Ampere's law or calculate the vector potential [itex]\vec{A}[/itex] first, I would do that.
 
  • #4
Hi gabbagabbahey,
Thanks for the tips, I'm still getting used to the LaTeX notation.

marcusl,
Ok, and then each infinitesimal loop will have a current I = [tex]\sigma 2 \pi R dr[/tex].
 
  • #5
russdot said:
Hi gabbagabbahey,
Thanks for the tips, I'm still getting used to the LaTeX notation.

marcusl,
Ok, and then each infinitesimal loop will have a current I = [tex]\sigma 2 \pi R dr[/tex].

You're welcome:smile:

Shouldn't each loop have a current of [itex]2 \pi r \sigma \omega dr[/itex]?:wink:
 
  • #6
Ah yes, I really should eat some food...
but since [tex]\vec{I} = \lambda \vec{v}[/tex]
and [tex]\lambda = \sigma 2 \pi dr[/tex]
and [tex]\vec{v} = r \vec{\omega}[/tex]
then [tex]\vec{I} = \sigma 2 \pi \vec{\omega} r dr[/tex], correct?
 
  • #7
Yep, looks good to me (my sigma didn't show up right the first time)...what then is the magnetic field of each loop? What do you get for the total magnetic field?
 
  • #8
gabbagabbahey said:
what then is the magnetic field of each loop?
For the magnetic field of each loop (along Z axis), I get:
[tex]\vec{B}(z) = \frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \int \frac{\sigma 2 \pi \omega x'^{2} (\hat{\phi} \times \hat{r})dx'd\phi}{x'^{2} + z^{2}}[/tex]
where [tex]\hat{\phi} \times \hat{\r} = \hat{k}cos\psi + \hat{R}sin\psi[/tex]
([tex]\psi[/tex] is the angle between[tex]\vec{r} = \vec{x} - \vec{x}'[/tex] and [tex]\hat{R}[/tex] where [tex]\hat{R}[/tex] is the cylindrical radial unit vector)

the [tex]sin\psi[/tex] term integrates out to zero, because [tex]\hat{R} = \hat{i}cos\phi + \hat{j}sin\phi[/tex] and I used the trig substitution [tex]cos\psi = \frac{x'}{\sqrt{x'^{2} + z^{2}}}[/tex]

[tex]\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega \int_{0}^{R} \frac{ x'^{3} dx'}{(x'^{2} + z^{2})^{3/2}} \hat{k}[/tex]

gabbagabbahey said:
What do you get for the total magnetic field?
Which gives a total magnetic field:
[tex]\vec{B}(z) = \mu_{0} \pi \sigma \omega (\frac{2z^{2} + R^2}{\sqrt{z^{2} + R^{2}}} - 2z) \hat{k}[/tex]
 
  • #9
Uhm... wouldn't the current flowing through an infinitesimal loop be the charge divided by a period T=[tex]\frac{2\pi}{\omega}[/tex] ?
so
[tex]i=\sigma\omega rdr[/tex]

P.s: how did you resolve the integral? Substituction with sinh(t) ? Are there any faster method?
 
Last edited:

1. What is a magnetic field above a thin charged disc?

A magnetic field above a thin charged disc refers to the region surrounding a charged disc where the magnetic force is present. This force is caused by the movement of electrically charged particles within the disc and can be observed through the interaction with other charged particles or objects.

2. How is the magnetic field above a thin charged disc measured?

The magnetic field above a thin charged disc can be measured using a magnetic field sensor or a compass. These instruments can detect the strength and direction of the magnetic field and provide quantitative data for analysis.

3. What factors affect the strength of the magnetic field above a thin charged disc?

The strength of the magnetic field above a thin charged disc is affected by the amount of charge on the disc, the distance from the disc, and the orientation of the disc. The magnetic field strength also decreases as you move further away from the disc.

4. How is the magnetic field above a thin charged disc different from other magnetic fields?

The magnetic field above a thin charged disc is different from other magnetic fields because it is created by a thin, flat disc of charge rather than a wire or a permanent magnet. This results in a unique pattern of magnetic field lines and a different distribution of magnetic force.

5. What are some applications of the magnetic field above a thin charged disc?

The magnetic field above a thin charged disc has various applications in technology, including in particle accelerators, electric motors, and generators. It is also important in understanding the behavior of charged particles in space and can be used in medical imaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

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