- #1
Jcampuzano2
- 5
- 0
Hello PF
This might be a fairly simple question to most of you, but I was given this problem (don't worry, I already solved it just wondering about something)
Suppose the probability of suffering a side effect of a certain flu vaccine is 0.005. If 1000 persons are inoculate, find the approximate probability that
(a) at most 1 person suffers, (b) 4,5, or 6 persons suffer.
I already solved it, but this problem is in the chapter on the Poisson distribution. Unfortunately my teacher didn't cover this distribution in detail, but when I first looked at the problem it look like a typical Binomial distribution problem? I later figured out I was supposed to approximate with the Poisson distribution.
Why would we use an approximation for the Binomial when we could just apply it, and under what circumstances am I allowed to make this approximation in the first place?
This might be a fairly simple question to most of you, but I was given this problem (don't worry, I already solved it just wondering about something)
Suppose the probability of suffering a side effect of a certain flu vaccine is 0.005. If 1000 persons are inoculate, find the approximate probability that
(a) at most 1 person suffers, (b) 4,5, or 6 persons suffer.
I already solved it, but this problem is in the chapter on the Poisson distribution. Unfortunately my teacher didn't cover this distribution in detail, but when I first looked at the problem it look like a typical Binomial distribution problem? I later figured out I was supposed to approximate with the Poisson distribution.
Why would we use an approximation for the Binomial when we could just apply it, and under what circumstances am I allowed to make this approximation in the first place?