## Bessel function of order 1

Prove that $J_1(x)=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\cos(\theta-x\sin\theta)d\theta$ by showing that the right-hand side satisfies Bessel's equation of order 1 and that the derivative has the value $J_1'(0)$ when $x=0$. Explain why this constitutes a proof.

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