How 2 Notes Combine on Piano Keyboard

In summary, the ear and brain work together to analyze the frequency content of a combined sound wave, allowing us to perceive individual frequencies and distinguish between multiple notes being played on a piano keyboard. This is achieved through a variety of signal processing mechanisms, including Fourier analysis and the resonant frequencies of hair cells in the cochlea. However, the exact process is still not fully understood and is an area of ongoing research.
  • #36
Hey guys I don't want to hijack this thread, however I remember I had read something on another forum about a very similar topic and a member said something that goes in counter of
atyy said:
Anyway, the ear performs a Fourier decomposition of the incoming sound into its component frequencies.
I myself do not understand most of the subject (so I'm here to give insights using other people since I'm not competent). The thread is http://forums.futura-sciences.com/physique/480015-serie-de-fourier-perception-auditive.html.
The member is LPFR and he said
Pour finir, l'oreille humaine n'est pas sensible à la phase des signaux mais uniquement à la puissance. Je me souviens qu'il a fallu faire la manip avec deux synthétiseurs (plus oscillo plus haut-parleur) pour convaincre un collègue que l'oreille humaine ne calculait pas ni la transformée ni la série de Fourier.
which would be something like
To finish, the human ear is nonsensitive to the phase of signals but is sensitive only to the power. I remember that we had to do the experiment with 2 synthesizers (aside with an oscilloscope and a speaker) to convince a colleague that the human ear does not calculate the Fourier transform nor the Fourier series.
There are some links in the mentioned thread (some of them in English). I'm not sure LPFR is right though but from the quality of all his posts and his experience, if he's wrong on this then there must be a "nasty" reason.
 
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  • #37
fluidistic said:
Hey guys I don't want to hijack this thread, however I remember I had read something on another forum about a very similar topic and a member said something that goes in counter of
I myself do not understand most of the subject (so I'm here to give insights using other people since I'm not competent). The thread is http://forums.futura-sciences.com/physique/480015-serie-de-fourier-perception-auditive.html.
The member is LPFR and he said which would be something like
There are some links in the mentioned thread (some of them in English). I'm not sure LPFR is right though but from the quality of all his posts and his experience, if he's wrong on this then there must be a "nasty" reason.

The ear is not sensitive to phase. So you could add cos(w1t)+cos(w2t+[itex]\phi_A[/itex]) and it would sound the same as cos(w1t)+cos(w2t+[itex]\phi_B[/itex]) even though the two waveforms can look really different on an oscilloscope.

So the Fourier transform a(w) of the wave x(t) would be be determined up to a phase [itex] a(w)e^{i\phi(w)}[/itex] which the ear cannot determine.

So in effect the ear would only measure |a(w)|2, which is the power spectrum by Parseval's theorem. So in that sense you can say the ear only measures power.
 
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  • #38
I remember that one of the strategies they use when trying to get maximum perceived loudness on, for instance, radio broadcasts, is to mangle the phase in order to restrict the peaks of audio waveforms - thus allowing them to jack up the general level without exceeding 100% modulation. The opinion is that you can't hear the difference - but, by that time, the programme is so distorted and compressed that 'quality' can be ignored.

But there is the time of arrival information too. Most sounds we hear are not, in fact, continuous so they do not analyse into continuous sinusoids. There is a lot of extra information that the brain seems to get out of the received binaural sound. Stereo works largely on the basis of relative amplitudes from left and right speakers but people can get far more information than that about direction of real life sound sources. There's about 1ms time difference in times of arrival at right and left ears so I guess we are able to resolve that.
 
  • #39
fluidistic said:
Hey guys I don't want to hijack this thread, however I remember I had read something on another forum about a very similar topic and a member said something that goes in counter of
I myself do not understand most of the subject (so I'm here to give insights using other people since I'm not competent). The thread is http://forums.futura-sciences.com/physique/480015-serie-de-fourier-perception-auditive.html.
The member is LPFR and he said which would be something like
There are some links in the mentioned thread (some of them in English). I'm not sure LPFR is right though but from the quality of all his posts and his experience, if he's wrong on this then there must be a "nasty" reason.

He is talking about the perceptual ear, since he is using keyboards to demonstrate. The OP did ask about the perceptual ear, and the brain was mentioned early in this thread by several posters. The topic of phase is very complicated, but there certainly is a sense in which the perceptual ear is phase deaf. A simple example that shows that that has to be qualified is that white noise and a click both have the same Fourier frequencies, differing only in phase, and are clearly perceived as different.

However, we seem to have drifted to talking about the physical ear for the moment. That does perform a Fourier transform. A little more accurately, it is well-modelled as a bank of gammatone filters.
http://www.pdn.cam.ac.uk/groups/cnbh/aimmanual/BMM/gtfb.htm
http://www.dicklyon.com/tech/Hearing/APGF_Lyon_1996.pdf
http://www.tu-harburg.de/ti6/pub/diss/solbach/index.html
 
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  • #40
fluidistic said:
Hey guys I don't want to hijack this thread, however I remember I had read something on another forum about a very similar topic and a member said something that goes in counter of
I myself do not understand most of the subject (so I'm here to give insights using other people since I'm not competent). The thread is http://forums.futura-sciences.com/physique/480015-serie-de-fourier-perception-auditive.html.
The member is LPFR and he said which would be something like
There are some links in the mentioned thread (some of them in English). I'm not sure LPFR is right though but from the quality of all his posts and his experience, if he's wrong on this then there must be a "nasty" reason.

Yeah, it probably doesn't do exactly a Fourier transform in that the phase information is not preserved. However, it at least does read the power spectrum of the signal, if you will. In addition, the ear still does process some form of phase information in how it judges the positioning of sounds. It does this from the relative phase shift between ears that results in the time delay from the different path lengths between the source and the ear.

One of the developments of interest in hearing aids and cochlear implants is the preservation of binaural information. A problem with using old fashioned hearing aids is that the listener suffers from the "cocktail party" effect. If they are listening to a speaker in an environment populated by other sounds, they have trouble isolating the desired speaker (in effect they lose the person among the others in the cocktail party). One of the reasons for this was that the hearing aids removed the binaural information that allowed the brain to lock on to a source and filter other sounds out. One way they are working to get around this is by having hearing aids that communicate information between each other. Instead of only working as individual left and right hearing aids, they get the sounds from both left and right and perform some processing to help preserve binaural information.

So the ear does not recognize phase monoaurally but it does measure phase binaurally.
 

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