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Imparcticle
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What's the difference between "to cause" and "to make" in this context:
http://www.sfu.ca/philosophy/swartz/freewill1.htm#intro
Thankx.
Consider: My wearing a short-sleeved shirt today [Oct. 28] is what makes (the proposition expressed by) "Swartz is wearing a short-sleeved shirt on Oct. 28, 1997" true. It is not the other way round. Logical fatalism confuses the semantic (truth-making) order. It makes it appear that the truth of a proposition 'causes' an event to occur. It is, rather, that the event's occurring tomorrow 'makes' (but does not cause) the proposition to be true today. This is not 'backwards causation': the relation between an event and the truth of the proposition describing that event is not a causal relation whatever. It is a semantic relation.
http://www.sfu.ca/philosophy/swartz/freewill1.htm#intro
Thankx.