What is the proof for GCD(n.m)=1 if 2^m-1 and 2^n-1 have a common divisor of 1?

  • Thread starter HussamLawen
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In summary, the statement "GCD(n.m)=1 <=> GCD((2^n)-1,(2^m)-1)=1" holds true. The proof involves using the fact that the polynomial x^k-1 is divisible by x-1, and applying it to the integers 2^n and 2^m. By the Euclidean algorithm, since n and m are relatively prime, there exists integers a and b such that am+bn=1, which leads to the conclusion that r, the common divisor of 2^m-1 and 2^n-1, equals 1.
  • #1
HussamLawen
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Hi

i need help to prove this theory:
GCD(n.m)=1 <=> GCD((2^n)-1,(2^m)-1)=1

n,m real numbers
 
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  • #2
sorry n,m Integers****
 
  • #3
I don't have yet a proof (thus I'm not completely convinced of the fact yet), but I believe this is a start:

The polynomial [itex]x^k-1[/itex] is divisible by [itex]x-1[/itex]; actually, [itex]x^k-1[/itex] factors as [itex](x-1)(x^{k-1}+x^{k-2}+ ... +x^3+x^2+x+1)[/itex]. Applying this with [itex]x = 2^n[/itex] you deduce that [itex]2^n-1[/itex] divides [itex]2^{k n}-1[/itex].
 
  • #4
If an integer r divides 2^m-1 and 2^n-1, then [tex]2^m\equiv2^n\equiv1\bmod r[/tex]

By the Euculidean algorithm, since m and n are relatively prime, there exists a and b such that am+bn=1.

Thus [tex]2^{am+bn}\equiv2\equiv(2^{am})(2^{bn})\equiv(1^a)(1^b)\equiv1\bmod r[/tex] Thus r equals 1.
 
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