- #1
ModernLogic
Hi,
I'm reading HL Royden's real analysis, though my question pertains more to set theory.
Let X be a set. Then the intersection of an empty collection of subsets of X is equal to X. I understand this is not an intersection of empty subsets but it is still very counter-intuitive. Can anyone provide insight?
I'm reading HL Royden's real analysis, though my question pertains more to set theory.
Let X be a set. Then the intersection of an empty collection of subsets of X is equal to X. I understand this is not an intersection of empty subsets but it is still very counter-intuitive. Can anyone provide insight?