- #1
monty0423
- 2
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Hello,
I am trying to solve a problem in university level electromagnetic fields course.
The problem is in the attachment.
My answer is simple, that for the magnetic flux B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] (vector field B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex]),
the Amperian loop will have a current equivalent to 0 because current through Amperian loop i = I - I = 0.
Therefore, B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] = 0 because μ0*2*[itex]\pi[/itex]*ρ*B = i = 0.
However, the solution stated that the force will be applied to the right direction.
Could anybody enlighten me with what is wrong with my reasoning?
I am trying to solve a problem in university level electromagnetic fields course.
The problem is in the attachment.
My answer is simple, that for the magnetic flux B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] (vector field B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex]),
the Amperian loop will have a current equivalent to 0 because current through Amperian loop i = I - I = 0.
Therefore, B[itex]\rightarrow[/itex] = 0 because μ0*2*[itex]\pi[/itex]*ρ*B = i = 0.
However, the solution stated that the force will be applied to the right direction.
Could anybody enlighten me with what is wrong with my reasoning?