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eahaidar
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Sorry if the question seems naive but if we have the Dirac delta function delta(x-y) is it the same as delta(y-x)?? Or there are opposite in sign? And why ?
Thank you for your time
Thank you for your time
Yes.eahaidar said:[...] the Dirac delta function delta(x-y) is it the same as delta(y-x)??
Because it is only nonzero when x = y.And why ?
strangerep said:Yes.
Because it is only nonzero when x = y.
(Sigh)Jazzdude said:Hm. I find this argument somewhat misleading.
strangerep said:(Sigh)
Well, I was trying to find a simple explanation since I wasn't sure whether the OP had studied distribution theory.
Silly me. I should have remembered: "simple explanations = trouble".
Agreed. I would have deleted my answer, but the editing time window had expired.Jazzdude said:I felt that your answer should not be the only one, because it can be problematic if generalised.
I didn't take it personally. I was just annoyed at myself for not realizing my answer could indeed be misleading in the way you pointed out.So please don't take this personal, there's really no reason for it.
Yes, the Dirac delta function is symmetric. This means that delta(x-y) is equal to delta(y-x).
The Dirac delta function is a mathematical function that is defined as a point mass at the origin, with an integral equal to 1.
The Dirac delta function is often used in physics and engineering to model point sources, such as point masses or point charges. It is also used as a distribution to simplify certain mathematical calculations.
No, the Dirac delta function cannot be graphed in the traditional sense. It is a mathematical abstraction that represents a point mass and has a value of infinity at the origin.
The Dirac delta function is a continuous function. It is often described as a "generalized function" that is not a traditional function, but rather a distribution that is defined by its properties and not by an explicit formula.