- #1
Jano L.
Gold Member
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Sometimes it is said that the probability distribution which does not add up to 1 still can be used to find relative probabilities.
For example, consider probability distribution [itex]p_n = 1/n[/itex] for all natural numbers. Does it make sense to say [itex]n = 1[/itex] is twice as probable as [itex]n=2[/itex], even if total probability does not add up to 1? Or does probabilistic description necessarily require that total probability is 1?
For example, consider probability distribution [itex]p_n = 1/n[/itex] for all natural numbers. Does it make sense to say [itex]n = 1[/itex] is twice as probable as [itex]n=2[/itex], even if total probability does not add up to 1? Or does probabilistic description necessarily require that total probability is 1?