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Hello everyone,
I'm studying the finite strain theory and have come across the maximum dissipation principle. It implies a dissipation function defined as
I quiet understood the physics but there is a mathematical relation that I don't understand. Given the above definition, we claim in a book that
I can't tell why, if you do please share it
Regards.
I'm studying the finite strain theory and have come across the maximum dissipation principle. It implies a dissipation function defined as
[itex]D=\tau:d-\dfrac{d\Psi}{dt}[/itex]
[itex] \tau[/itex] denotes the Kirchhoff stress tensor, [itex]d[/itex] the eulerian deformation rate and [itex] \Psi=\Psi(b_e,\xi)[/itex] the free energy, [itex]b_e[/itex] the left Cauchy-Green tensor, and [itex]\xi[/itex] an internal variable.I quiet understood the physics but there is a mathematical relation that I don't understand. Given the above definition, we claim in a book that
[itex]D=\Big (\tau-2\dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial b_e}b_e \Big) : d + 2\dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial b_e}b_e : \Big ( -\dfrac{1}{2} L_v(b_e) b_e^{-1} \Big )-\dfrac{\partial \Psi }{\partial \xi} \dfrac{d\xi}{dt}[/itex]
where [itex]d[/itex] is the symmetric part of the spatial velocity gradient [itex]L[/itex] and [itex]L_v(b_e)[/itex] denotes the Lie derivative of [itex]b_e[/itex]. We can show that [itex]\dfrac{d}{dt}b_e=Lb_e+b_eL^t+L_v(b_e)[/itex]
thus the both expressions given to [itex]D[/itex] are equal if and only if [itex]\dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial b_e}:b_e L^t=\dfrac{\partial \Psi}{\partial b_e }:L^t b_e[/itex], but how can this last equality be true ? I can't tell why, if you do please share it
Regards.