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For some reason I have been extremely curious of how Newton derived his mathematical law for gravitation. You know
[tex] F= \frac{GMm}{r^2}[/tex]
So the first thing I did before i posted this was search Google and I foundhttp://www.relativitycalculator.com/Newton_Universal_Gravity_Law.shtml" . It talks about a possible derivation of how Newton could have derived his law of gravity. It looks pretty good and I understand most of it BUT there is one part I don't understand. There is one part in the derivation that looks like this.
[tex] \frac{C}{M}=\frac{c}{m}=\frac{k}{4\pi} [/tex]
In this situation k is the gravitational constant and 4pi is... 4pi. My question is WHERE did this k/(4pi) come from? Why set these two equations equal to k/(4pi)? Can someone tell me where this k/(4pi) came from??
Thanks for your responce :D
[tex] F= \frac{GMm}{r^2}[/tex]
So the first thing I did before i posted this was search Google and I foundhttp://www.relativitycalculator.com/Newton_Universal_Gravity_Law.shtml" . It talks about a possible derivation of how Newton could have derived his law of gravity. It looks pretty good and I understand most of it BUT there is one part I don't understand. There is one part in the derivation that looks like this.
[tex] \frac{C}{M}=\frac{c}{m}=\frac{k}{4\pi} [/tex]
In this situation k is the gravitational constant and 4pi is... 4pi. My question is WHERE did this k/(4pi) come from? Why set these two equations equal to k/(4pi)? Can someone tell me where this k/(4pi) came from??
Thanks for your responce :D
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