- #1
ausername1
- 6
- 0
First: Theoretically, is it possible to transfer all of an object's KE to another object? e.g. (ignoring gravity, friction, sound, etc.) an object with mass=M and 1eV collides with another object of mass=m and 0eV-- afterwords, object M has 0eV and object m has 1eV (conservation of energy)? It seems like that should be possible but then...
Second: (ignoring gravity, friction, sound, etc.) Imagine a pool ball colliding with a ping pong ball that is at rest; the pool ball is stopped completely and the ping pong ball moves away with a velocity that that conserves the pool ball's momentum. So would all of the kinetic energy be transferred as well? I can't imagine that happening in my head, the pool ball still keeps rolling on my imaginary pool table... Am I missing something really easy that explains why that wouldn't happen or is my imagination just that of a lesser quality?
Second: (ignoring gravity, friction, sound, etc.) Imagine a pool ball colliding with a ping pong ball that is at rest; the pool ball is stopped completely and the ping pong ball moves away with a velocity that that conserves the pool ball's momentum. So would all of the kinetic energy be transferred as well? I can't imagine that happening in my head, the pool ball still keeps rolling on my imaginary pool table... Am I missing something really easy that explains why that wouldn't happen or is my imagination just that of a lesser quality?