| New Reply |
A electron can exist in everywhere ? |
Share Thread | Thread Tools |
| Nov17-12, 07:29 AM | #52 |
|
Mentor
Blog Entries: 27
|
A electron can exist in everywhere ?On the other hand, if that is not what you meant, and you think there is a third way to look at this, then this doesn't apply to you, because that is not what is being addressed here. Zz. |
| Nov17-12, 05:32 PM | #53 |
|
|
Again from the paper you linked to: 'The argument depends on few assumptions. One is that a system has a 'real physical state' not necessarily completely described by quantum theory, but objective and independent of the observer. This assumption only needs to hold for systems that are isolated, and not entangled with other systems. Nonetheless, this assumption, or some part of it, would be denied by instrumentalist approaches to quantum theory, wherein the quantum state is merely a calculational tool for making predictions concerning macroscopic measurement outcomes.' My position is precisely this denial - namely it is an instrumentalist view with the reality being the system and observational apparatus - the state merely codifies the result of what would happen, statistically, if you were to observe it. The state is not 'real and physical' any more than the probabilities assigned to a the sides of a coin are real and physical - it does not exist in any real sense, simply as a tool to predict the outcomes of observations. This is the view of Ballentine etc in the Ensemble interpretation, although I personally incorporate decoherence into it but that is another issue. Thanks Bill |
| Nov17-12, 06:44 PM | #54 |
|
Mentor
Blog Entries: 27
|
Let's be clear here. If the sides of the coin is the way that this paper has described, then we now have a way to test it. This is very much what Bell did with a test for local interaction as stated in EPR. His test moved it from being merely a matter of philosophy to actual physics that can be tested. This paper, with the caveat of its assumption, is doing just that, and proposed for the first time a test to distinguish one from the other. It may not be the final form of such test, the same way Bell test has evolved into stricter and more stringent tests, but it is at least a start that will drag this debate from philosophy into physics. Now, if your world view is different than from either of these, and presumably from your arguments, you can't distinguish one from the other, then you are back into the philosophy realm where we are going to argue based on a matter of taste! That may be what you wish to do, but that isn't the point of this discussion. Zz. |
| Nov17-12, 07:59 PM | #55 |
|
|
The issue is not philosophical - I am generally a bit anti philosophy - but a simple bit of common sense. Knowledge of something real and physical like the expected outcome of observations on a system is not the same as the outcomes themselves. The outcomes are real and physical - no denying it - but knowledge of what the expected value of those outcomes are over a long sequence of observations is not a 'real physical state' to use the words of the paper you linked to. Balentine states the second axiom of QM as follows (although I personally prefer deriving it from the assumption of additivity of expectation values as was done by Von Neumann long ago - or even by Gleasons Theorem - but that is another issue) - if R is an observable then there exists a positive operator p of unit trace, called the state of the system, such that the expected value of R E(R) = Tr(pR). Since the expected value of the outcome of many observations is simply knowledge about the system precisely why do you consider the state p a 'real physical state' or indeed that the system must depend on some such? Do you also consider the probabilities assigned to each side of the coin real and not just a calculational device to predict the proportion of long term outcomes? Do they in turn must depend on something real and physical (of course in this case it depends on all all sorts of other things like how hard the coin is flipped but in principle it does not have to - this is my key point)? Of course I can't prove you wrong and indeed there could be a long drawn out philosophical discussion on what exactly real is that IMHO would be pointless (just like I believe a lot of philosophical stuff is - which is why I am a bit anti philosophy) but to me this is pretty much common sense. I suppose after thinking about it a bit you for some reason believe a quantum system must be described by something that exists external to us and exists in a real physical sense - I do not agree that is a priori so. It is very easy to be fooled by something like the coin flipping of the classical world. If we knew all the details of how it was flipped then in principle we could predict the outcome and so think the probabilities we assign to it depend in some imperfect way on something real - which in that case it does. But the quantum world a priori does not have to be like that. Regarding issues of taste - isn't that exactly what a choice of QM interpretation amounts to? And the point of answering a question like the OP posted is that the answer depends on interpretation? Thanks Bill |
| Nov17-12, 08:37 PM | #56 |
|
|
1. If one assumes that there is some reality that underlies the quantum state (probability distributions over the ontic states)it is ruled out. 2. If one assumes that there is no deeper underlying reality, then PBR has no effect. Does Ballentine's ensemble approach you favour subscribe to position 1 or 2? Can the quantum state be interpreted statistically? http://mattleifer.info/2011/11/20/ca...statistically/ http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=551554 |
| Nov17-12, 08:41 PM | #57 |
|
|
beyond a certain range (of time-space) the probability of finding an electron will drop to zero interestingly (per some assumptions/hypothesis) even quantum entanglement would then have a limit/range |
| Nov17-12, 09:24 PM | #58 |
|
|
In discussing issues of principle I personally choose position 2 because a lot of the philosophical waffle goes out the door - but that does not mean I rule position 1 out - I simply hold that view until we know something more definite from experiment. To me its easier that way - but what is one persons easier is another's I can't stand it. By philosophical waffle I mean issues such as what position does an electron have when not observing it, and how does it instantaneously change to another state when you observe it - they become non issues. Thanks Bill |
| Nov18-12, 05:28 PM | #59 |
|
|
Then, I'm guessing that PBR not only rules out Einstein's ensemble interpretation but also Lee Smolin "real ensemble interpretation":
A real ensemble interpretation of quantum mechanics http://arxiv.org/pdf/1104.2822v1.pdf |
| Nov18-12, 05:49 PM | #60 |
|
|
Thanks Bill |
| Nov18-12, 07:52 PM | #61 |
|
|
http://arxiv.org/pdf/0706.2661v1.pdf Such a model is ruled out by PBR. |
| Nov18-12, 09:30 PM | #62 |
|
|
The PBR theorem only applies to standard QM - not to some hypothetical theory that QM may be the approximation of like classical thermodynamics is the approximation of quantum thermodynamics. This was Einsteins belief - QM was not incorrect - just incomplete and he would have thought the PBR theorem is simply a symptom of that incompleteness. Classical thermodynamics has problems such as the black-body radiation problem quantum theory fixes up. There are similar issues with Electrodynamics such as the infinite self energy of the field and acasual runaway solutions in some circumstances. But again it is not an issue because it is only an approximation to QED that resolves the problems (but of course has others) - in virtually all practical situations classical Electrodynamics is applied to no problems arise - but to be sure it is in fact a sick theory. Einstein would be smiling merrily and looking over to Bohr who really couldn't care less because like me he thought the state, although fundamental, was simply knowledge about the system and not something real and physical. In fact one version of the Ensemble interpretation accepts Einsteins take and that when you make an observation it selects a pre existing outcome despite Kochen-Sprecker. It invokes some as yet unknown theory to resolve it. Conceptually actually a very neat solution. It has but one problem - what is this theory it is an approximation to - damn that pesky detail. Funny how nothing really has changed on the QM interpretation front - each side simply retreats to their impregnable positions - hmmm - I seem to recall posting that before. Thanks Bill |
| Nov18-12, 09:51 PM | #63 |
|
|
I think Bohr would have been happier with the PBR theorem than Einstein. The reason, being that PBR leaves anti-realist approaches unscathed whereas it eliminates certain ontic models where ψ is epistemic/probabilistic. Not that there are any theorems that are likely to eliminate anti-realistic approaches. Having said that, there are other models that are also not affected by PBR or Bell's: superdeterministic ones.
|
| Nov18-12, 10:03 PM | #64 |
|
|
Yea Bohr may have liked PBR.
But really its this 'realist' view of the world that is the issue - for some of us its just so deeply ingrained its hard to shake and why I think there will always be disagreement. Early on I was in the realist camp but after a while its baggage became too much and I jumped ship - long before PBR BTW. Thanks Bill |
| New Reply |
| Thread Tools | |
Similar Threads for: A electron can exist in everywhere ?
|
||||
| Thread | Forum | Replies | ||
| How long would an electron-positron pair exist for? | Introductory Physics Homework | 7 | ||
| Cogito ergo sum,.. however, I dont know you exist, prove to me you exist | General Discussion | 31 | ||
| Do protons also exist as "proton waves" similar to the "electron waves"? | High Energy, Nuclear, Particle Physics | 8 | ||
| Do 3 electron bonds really exist? | Chemistry | 9 | ||
| Do mathematical proofs exist, of things that we are not sure exist? | Math & Science Software | 43 | ||