- #1
Dschumanji
- 153
- 1
I understand the proof except for the following:
Suppose that -m2 < nx < m1 for positive integers m1, m2, n, and real number x.
Then there is an integer m with -m2 ≤ m ≤ m1 such that m-1 ≤ nx < m.
It definitely sounds reasonable, but it seems like a big jump in logic.
Suppose that -m2 < nx < m1 for positive integers m1, m2, n, and real number x.
Then there is an integer m with -m2 ≤ m ≤ m1 such that m-1 ≤ nx < m.
It definitely sounds reasonable, but it seems like a big jump in logic.