Finite Integral in measure theory

In summary: Since \mu is a finite measure, this integral is finite, and thus f(x) is finite almost everywhere.In summary, to prove that f(x) is finite almost everywhere, we considered the integral for different fixed values of x and used Fubini-Tonelli's theorem to show that it is finite for almost all x. This satisfies the almost everywhere constraint, and thus f(x) is indeed finite almost everywhere. I hope this helps you get started on your problem. Good luck on your exam!
  • #1
scottneh
3
0
Hello, I am preparing for a screening exam and I'm trying to figure out some old problems that I have been given.

Given:

Suppose [tex]\mu[/tex] is a finite Borel measure on R, and define

f[tex](x)=\int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}}[/tex]

Prove f[tex](x)[/tex] is finite almost everywhere

If I integrate I get -2[tex]\sqrt{x-y}[/tex] for y[tex]\leq[/tex]x and 2[tex]\sqrt{-x+y}[/tex] for x[tex]\le[/tex]y

I can clearly see that the integral is not finite for x = y and hence the "almost everywhere constraint and the integrand looks like it would tend to zero as either variable increases toward infinity but the result of the integral looks like it will blow up if wither variable tend to infinity.

I was looking at Fubini-Tonelli but I'm not really sure how to use it here as only d mu(y) and not a d mu(x) as well.

Can someone please help me get started?

Thanks
 
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  • #2
for reaching out for help with this problem! it's important to have a strong understanding of mathematical concepts and techniques, so it's great that you are taking the time to work through these old problems.

To prove that f(x) is finite almost everywhere, we need to show that for almost all x, the integral \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}} is finite.

First, let's consider the case when x is a fixed point. In this case, the integral becomes \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}} = \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-x\right|}} = \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{0}, which is undefined. However, this case is irrelevant for the almost everywhere constraint, as it only concerns a single point.

Next, let's consider the integral for a fixed y, where y is a point in the support of \mu. In this case, the integral becomes \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}} = \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|y-y\right|}} = \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{0}, which is again undefined. However, this case is also irrelevant for the almost everywhere constraint, as it only concerns a single point in the support of \mu.

Now, let's consider the integral for a fixed x outside of the support of \mu. In this case, the integral becomes \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}} = \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}}, which is finite since x is outside of the support of \mu and the integrand is well-defined.

Finally, let's consider the integral for a fixed x inside the support of \mu. In this case, the integral becomes \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|x-y\right|}} = \int\frac{d\mu(y)}{\sqrt{\left|y-x\right|}}. Now, we can use Fubini-Tonelli's theorem to switch the order of integration, since both x and y are inside the support of \mu. This gives
 

1. What is a finite integral in measure theory?

A finite integral in measure theory is a mathematical concept that is used to calculate the area under a curve or the volume of a solid, where the measure of the set on which the integral is defined is finite. It is a generalization of the Riemann integral and is used in many areas of mathematics, such as probability theory and functional analysis.

2. How is a finite integral different from a Riemann integral?

The main difference between a finite integral and a Riemann integral is in the measure of the set on which the integral is defined. A Riemann integral is defined on a finite interval, while a finite integral can be defined on any set with a finite measure. This allows for a wider range of functions to be integrated using the finite integral.

3. What is the importance of finite integrals in measure theory?

Finite integrals in measure theory are important because they provide a powerful tool for calculating the area or volume of objects in higher dimensions. They also allow for the integration of a wider range of functions, including those that are not Riemann integrable. Additionally, finite integrals are used in many mathematical applications, such as in probability and statistics.

4. How is a finite integral calculated?

The calculation of a finite integral involves finding the limit of a sequence of Riemann sums as the number of intervals in the partition of the set approaches infinity. This is similar to the method used for calculating a Riemann integral, but with the added step of taking the limit. The exact method of calculation may vary depending on the specific function and set being integrated.

5. What is the relationship between finite integrals and Lebesgue integrals?

The Lebesgue integral is a more general type of integral that extends the concept of a finite integral. Every finite integral is also a Lebesgue integral, but not every Lebesgue integral is a finite integral. Finite integrals are typically easier to calculate and are used for specific functions and sets, while Lebesgue integrals are more general and are used for more complex functions and sets.

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