Interesting. A rather simple question and two pages of theoretically dubious digressions about mathematical theory which don't address the question, except for that one useful answer by romsofia:
 Quote by romsofia
This is a boundless integral. What did you think of when you read that? What do you think of when you're dealing with infinity in calculus??
Anyway, here's what your first step should look like to see if this improper integral diverges or converges.
[tex]{\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{x^{2}} dx= \lim_{a\to+\infty} \lim_{b\to-\infty}\left. \frac{-1}{x}\right|_{b}^{a}}[/tex].
I think you can solve it from there.
OOPSSS I messed up, I forgot to think about x=0 (was too focus on making my latex look cool :/). Anyway, the questions I asked should help develop some more intuition on improper integrals.
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Yeah, just to expand on this (taking care of x=0) you just try to calculate [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{0}\frac{1}{x^{2}} dx+\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{x^{2}} dx=\left. \frac{-1}{x}\right|_{-\infty}^{0}+\left. \frac{-1}{x}\right|_{0}^{\infty}[/tex].
Regarding the statement in the OP that "it seems that the integrand is undefined on both limits of integration", that's wrong. The integrand is undefined at [tex]x=0[/tex] but the limits for x=±∞ are equal to zero, so they don't pose a problem. The problem is x=0 where the integrand is undefined. So you can't just integrate over any interval that contains 0 in the naive way that romsofia suggested (although he/she noticed his/her mistake; I'm just trying to clarify).
"Also, does the function being even help us at all?"
That just shows that [tex]\int_{-\infty}^{0}\frac{1}{x^{2}} dx=\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{1}{x^{2}} dx[/tex] (symmetry).
I'm always annoyed by smartass people adding more confusion to questions than there originally was. (If you're not a smartass I'm not addressing you. No offense meant.) I hope I'm not making the same mistake.
About Riemann integrability: Yeah, as others have noticed, chiro was talking ********. A continuous function is Riemann integrable. Continuity is a sufficient condition for Riemann integrability. [tex]\frac{1}{x^2}[/tex] is continuous on [tex]\mathbb{R}-{\{0\}}[/tex], so it's Riemann integrable on every compact interval which does not cross x=0. So you can integrate over such intervals in the "naive" way, (just substracting the indefinite integral at the boundary points). Blah!