- #1
M. next
- 382
- 0
If we considered some coordinate as being a generalized one, like when we are considering spherical coordinates-let us suppose that I chose theta and phi as generalized coordinates. After deriving the Lagrangian equation it turned out that the equation doesn't depend on phi. Which means that derivative of the Lagrangian by phi is zero. Does this mean it is not a generalized coordinate? If not, what does it mean? And lastly, what's the difference if the case was that the equation doesn't depend on phi dot(the time derivative of phi)
thanks in advance
thanks in advance