- #1
lokofer
- 106
- 0
Let be the integrals:
[tex] \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx Cos(uf(x)) [/tex] (or the same but a sine) and
[tex] \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dxe^{-ag(x)} [/tex]
Where "a" is a a>0 positive constant, u can be either positive or negative.. and g(x)>0 for every real x.. my question is will these integrals "always2 exist under these conditions?..what would happen if we take the limit a-->oo and u-->oo ? are in this case equal to 0?
[tex] \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx Cos(uf(x)) [/tex] (or the same but a sine) and
[tex] \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dxe^{-ag(x)} [/tex]
Where "a" is a a>0 positive constant, u can be either positive or negative.. and g(x)>0 for every real x.. my question is will these integrals "always2 exist under these conditions?..what would happen if we take the limit a-->oo and u-->oo ? are in this case equal to 0?