- #1
alexepascual
- 371
- 1
In the following equation:
[tex]
\left\langle {\phi }
\mathrel{\left | {\vphantom {\phi \Psi }}
\right. \kern-\nulldelimiterspace}
{\Psi } \right\rangle = \int {\phi ^ * } \left( x \right)\psi \left( x \right)dx
[/tex]
my understanding would have been that the bracket represents a probability amplitude. But the dx on the integral gives it a dimension of length. OK, the square of the absolute value of the braket is not a probability but a probability density. Wouldn't then the units be probability over unit of length?
I am a little confused. Any help will be appreciated.
By the way, this equation is from Feynman Lectures, Vol III, 16-6
[tex]
\left\langle {\phi }
\mathrel{\left | {\vphantom {\phi \Psi }}
\right. \kern-\nulldelimiterspace}
{\Psi } \right\rangle = \int {\phi ^ * } \left( x \right)\psi \left( x \right)dx
[/tex]
my understanding would have been that the bracket represents a probability amplitude. But the dx on the integral gives it a dimension of length. OK, the square of the absolute value of the braket is not a probability but a probability density. Wouldn't then the units be probability over unit of length?
I am a little confused. Any help will be appreciated.
By the way, this equation is from Feynman Lectures, Vol III, 16-6
Last edited: