- #1
kelvin911
- 2
- 0
[tex]
\int_0^{\pi} \frac{x}{1+\sin(x)\cos(x)} dx
[/tex]
\int_0^{\pi} \frac{x}{1+\sin(x)\cos(x)} dx
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cronxeh said:This is not a competition. I had the answer the minute I looked at the problem to make sure it existed. The point is to teach him how to find the solution by looking at his attempt at the solution. Please don't randomly post an answer which does not help him in any way.
The formula for integrating $\frac{x}{1 + \sin(x) \cos(x)}$ from 0 to $\pi$ is $\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x}{1 + \sin(x) \cos(x)} dx$.
To evaluate the integral of $\frac{x}{1 + \sin(x) \cos(x)}$ from 0 to $\pi$, you can use the substitution method or the integration by parts method. Both methods will result in the same answer.
No, the integral of $\frac{x}{1 + \sin(x) \cos(x)}$ from 0 to $\pi$ cannot be solved using basic integration rules. It requires more advanced integration techniques such as substitution or integration by parts.
The integral of $\frac{x}{1 + \sin(x) \cos(x)}$ from 0 to $\pi$ has various applications in physics, engineering, and other scientific fields. It can be used to solve problems related to motion, waves, and electric circuits, among others.
Yes, there are many real-life scenarios where integrating $\frac{x}{1 + \sin(x) \cos(x)}$ from 0 to $\pi$ would be useful. For example, it can be used to calculate the work done by a force over a given distance or the total charge passing through an electric circuit over a specific time interval.