Prove Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if and only if ad-bc≠0

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In summary, Homework Statement: In order to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2, it is necessary to show that any vector in R^2 can be expressed as a linear combination of ((a,b),(c,d)). However, this proof is not rigorous, as it fails to consider the possibility that ad-bc might not be equal to zero.
  • #1
peripatein
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Hi,

Homework Statement



I am trying to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if and only if ad-bc≠0.
I am wondering whether the proof below would be considered rigorous.
NB. I am not permitted to make use of number of dimentions.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



First direction:
Let Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2
Hence, (x,y) = alpha(a,b) + beta (c,d)
Hence, x=a*alpha + c*beta; y=b*alpha + d*beta
Hence, beta(ad-bc) = xb-ya
In order that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and any vector in R^2 could be represented as a linear combination of ((a,b),(c,d)) there has to be a solution for beta, i.e. ad-bc cannot be zero.

Second direction: I am going to try to show that provided that ad-bc≠0, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2.
Supposing ad=bc, then (c,d) = (c/a)(a,b) for a≠0, or (c,d) = (d/b)(a,b) for b≠0.
Hence, {(a,b),(c,d)} is linearly dependent over R^2.
Hence, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = Sp{(a,b)} whilst a≠0, which is not equal to R^2, OR, Sp{(a,b)} whilst b≠0, which is also not equal to R^2.
Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

Is the above sufficient? Is the proof correct?
 
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  • #2
I'm assuming Sp{x,y} means span of.
Is invertibility allowed? Since given [x y] invertible, you can show that (0,1) and (1,0) are in the span of {x,y} and thus all combinations of (0,1) and (1,0) are in the span (R2)
 
  • #3
Invertibility is allowed.
Nevertheless, could you please comment on the proof suggested above?
 
Last edited:
  • #4
peripatein said:
Hi,

Homework Statement



I am trying to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if and only if ad-bc≠0.
I am wondering whether the proof below would be considered rigorous.
NB. I am not permitted to make use of number of dimentions.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



First direction:
Let Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2
Hence, (x,y) = alpha(a,b) + beta (c,d)
For the above, you should add something like
"Every vector (x, y) in R2 can be written as a linear combination of (a, b) and (c, d)."
Hence (x, y) = α(a, b) + β(c, d) for some constants α and β.
peripatein said:
Hence, x=a*alpha + c*beta; y=b*alpha + d*beta
Hence, beta(ad-bc) = xb-ya
It might be helpful here to explain what you're doing, which is to multiply the equation for x by b, and multiply the equation for y by a, and then subtracting the two equations.

Then you could solve for β, getting
β = (ax - by)/(ad - bc)
peripatein said:
In order that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and any vector in R^2 could be represented as a linear combination of ((a,b),(c,d)) there has to be a solution for beta, i.e. ad-bc cannot be zero.

Second direction: I am going to try to show that provided that ad-bc≠0, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2.
Supposing ad=bc, then (c,d) = (c/a)(a,b) for a≠0, or (c,d) = (d/b)(a,b) for b≠0.
Hence, {(a,b),(c,d)} is linearly dependent over R^2.
Hence, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = Sp{(a,b)} whilst a≠0, which is not equal to R^2, OR, Sp{(a,b)} whilst b≠0, which is also not equal to R^2.
Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

Is the above sufficient? Is the proof correct?
 
  • #5
Thank you very much! Yet what about the second part of the proof?
 
  • #7
peripatein said:
Second direction: I am going to try to show that provided that ad-bc≠0, Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2.
Supposing ad=bc, . . .
That's the wrong way to start. You need to assume that ad-bc≠0, not =0.

Actually it might be better to assume that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and deduce that ad-bc can't have been ≠0 after all, i.e. instead of proving

ad-bc ≠ 0 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

you prove

Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} ≠ R^2 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] ad-bc = 0
 
  • #8
But wouldn't then be exactly like the first direction?
 
  • #9
Michael Redei said:
That's the wrong way to start. You need to assume that ad-bc≠0, not =0.
Peripatain is doing a proof by contradiction, which is a valid way to do things.
Michael Redei said:
Actually it might be better to assume that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 and deduce that ad-bc can't have been ≠0 after all, i.e. instead of proving

ad-bc ≠ 0 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2

you prove

Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} ≠ R^2 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] ad-bc = 0
 
  • #10
Mark44 said:
Peripatain is doing a proof by contradiction, which is a valid way to do things.
True, but Peripatain has still proven the same thing twice, once
Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] ad-bc≠0
and then
ad-bc=0 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}≠R^2.

Adding "Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2" was wrong, this does not follow from either proof.

This situation is like first proving
"if you read good books [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] you will grow wise"
and then
"if you're not wise [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] you obviously didn't read good books".

These are not equivalent though, since you could be wise without reading books at all (for instance by listening to advice from others).
 
  • #11
Wouldn't proving it the way you suggested be the same proof as the in first direction?
 
  • #12
Michael Redei said:
True, but Peripatain has still proven the same thing twice, once
Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}=R^2 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] ad-bc≠0
and then
ad-bc=0 [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}≠R^2.

Adding "Hence, ad-bc≠0 => Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2" was wrong, this does not follow from either proof.

This situation is like first proving
"if you read good books [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] you will grow wise"
and then
"if you're not wise [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] you obviously didn't read good books".

These are not equivalent though, since you could be wise without reading books at all (for instance by listening to advice from others).

You are correct. I confess that I didn't look at the 2nd part that carefully.

Peripatain, you need to start by assuming that ad - bc ≠ 0, and then showing that the two vectors span R2.
 
Last edited:
  • #13
Assume ad-bc≠0. Then you can solve any equation of the kind you mentioned in the first part, that is anything like β(ad-bc) = xb-ya, no matter how you choose x and y. And that means that every vector (x,y) lies in Sp{(a,b),(c,d)}. Actually the two proofs are very similar, only the wording differs a bit:

(1) R^2=Sp{...} => every point (x,y) fulfils the equations... => β(...) = ... must have a solution => ad-bc≠0.

(2) ad-bc≠0 => β(...)=... always has a solution, no matter how x,y are chosen => any point (x,y) lies in Sp{...} => Sp{...}=R^2.
 
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1. How do I prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2?

To prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2, you need to show that any vector (x,y) in R^2 can be written as a linear combination of the vectors (a,b) and (c,d). This means that there exist scalars r and s such that (x,y) = r(a,b) + s(c,d). By solving for r and s, you can show that any vector in R^2 can be expressed as a linear combination of (a,b) and (c,d), which means that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2.

2. What does Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 mean?

Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 means that the set of all linear combinations of the vectors (a,b) and (c,d) spans the entire 2-dimensional space, R^2. This means that any vector in R^2 can be written as a linear combination of (a,b) and (c,d).

3. Why is it necessary for ad-bc≠0 in order to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2?

If ad-bc=0, then the vectors (a,b) and (c,d) are linearly dependent, meaning that one vector can be written as a scalar multiple of the other. This would mean that the set Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} is not a basis for R^2, and therefore cannot span the entire space. Thus, ad-bc≠0 is necessary for Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 to be true.

4. Can I use any other set of vectors to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2?

No, you cannot use any other set of vectors to prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2. The vectors (a,b) and (c,d) are specifically chosen because they are linearly independent and span R^2. If you use a different set of vectors, it may not satisfy these properties and therefore cannot prove that Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2.

5. Is it possible for Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if ad-bc=0?

No, it is not possible for Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 if ad-bc=0. As mentioned before, this would mean that the vectors (a,b) and (c,d) are linearly dependent, and therefore cannot span the entire space of R^2. In order for Sp{(a,b),(c,d)} = R^2 to be true, ad-bc must not equal 0.

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