- #1
jostpuur
- 2,116
- 19
Is it true, that if in Hilbert space, operators T and S satisfy (Tf|f)=(Sf|f) for all f in H, then T=S?
I think it is clear, that if (Tf|g)=(Sf|g) is true for all f and g in H, then T=S, but I'm not sure if it is sufficient to only allow g=f.
I think it is clear, that if (Tf|g)=(Sf|g) is true for all f and g in H, then T=S, but I'm not sure if it is sufficient to only allow g=f.