Dot product of electric and magnetic field conserved in special relativity?

In summary: E^\prime_\parallel = E_\parallelB^\prime_\parallel = B_\parallelThese are all derived from knowing how the 4 vector you've mentioned (A) transforms, and how it relates to EM fields. So by applying the Lorentz transformations you don't prove the principle of relativity, you just confirm that the transformations were derived correctly.
  • #1
ralph961
5
0
An inertial reference frame 2 is moving along the x-axis with constant velocity v with respect to inertial reference frame 1.
......->-> ->->
How can i prove the E.H = E'.H' ?? (dot product)
using the 4 dimensional (Ax,Ay,Az,phi)
where E = -1/c dA/dt - gradiant(phi)
and H = curl(A)
Where E is the electric field and H the magnetic field.
 
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  • #2
ralph961 said:
An inertial reference frame 2 is moving along the x-axis with constant velocity v with respect to inertial reference frame 1.
......->-> ->->
How can i prove the E.H = E'.H' ?? (dot product)
using the 4 dimensional (Ax,Ay,Az,phi)
where E = -1/c dA/dt - gradiant(phi)
and H = curl(A)
Where E is the electric field and H the magnetic field.
If they weren't the same, inertial frames would not be equivalent.

The principle of relativity states that the laws of physics are the same in all frames of reference. The Lorentz transformations for Maxwell's equations were developed by applying that principle. So by applying the Lorentz transformations you don't prove the principle of relativity, you just confirm that the transformations were derived correctly.

The answer to your question is contained in http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/#SECTION20"

AM
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #3
Thank you for replying,
It is noted by my professor that:
Note that this result is highly non-trivial since usually the 3-dimensional scalar
product is NOT preserved under the 4-dimensional Lorenz transformations, so the case of the scalar product (E.H) is very special - it is the same in all the reference frames. This important scalar product is known as one of the invariants of the electromagnetic field.

I need to prove that E.H= E'.H', not by theory but i have to derive that they are equal using lorentz transformation.
Is that possible and how?
 
  • #4
Are you familiar with the electromagnetic tensors [tex]F^{\alpha \beta}[/tex]? If you are, this is a result of that tensor and the tensor [tex]\mathfrak{F}^{\alpha \beta}[/tex] being multiplied together, and taking the trace, and such.
 
  • #5
No I'm not familiar with that.
Sorry..
So the dot product E.B is always 0 in all reference frames?
 
  • #6
Special relativity help

A body travels at a speed c/10 from point A to point B distant 3 light years.
Is the time of the event "arrival of the body at B" with respect to the inertial reference frame at A, 30 years or 30.15 years?
 
  • #7
ralph961 said:
Thank you for replying,
It is noted by my professor that:
Note that this result is highly non-trivial since usually the 3-dimensional scalar
product is NOT preserved under the 4-dimensional Lorenz transformations, so the case of the scalar product (E.H) is very special - it is the same in all the reference frames. This important scalar product is known as one of the invariants of the electromagnetic field.

I need to prove that E.H= E'.H', not by theory but i have to derive that they are equal using lorentz transformation.
Is that possible and how?

Yes. You only need to use the transformations laws of H and E. Do you have those equations? It's just plugging in.
 
  • #8
I have the transformation laws of (Ax,Ay,Az,phi) which are like the (x,y,z,ct)
A=(Ax,Ay,Az) and phi are defined by
E = -1/c dA/dt - gradiant(phi)
and H = curl(A)
 
  • #9
The only way I've seen it proved is with 4-tensors. However, maybe you have the results of the 4-tensor analysis without the analysis itself. Have you seen:
[tex]
\vec{E}^\prime_\perp = \gamma_0 (\vec{E}_\perp + \vec{\beta}_0 \times c \vec{B}_\perp)
[/tex]
[tex]
c \vec{B}^\prime_\perp = \gamma_0 (c \vec{B}_\perp - \vec{\beta}_0 \times \vec{E}_\perp)
[/tex]
[tex]
E^\prime_\parallel = E_\parallel
[/tex]
[tex]
B^\prime_\parallel = B_\parallel
[/tex]

These are all derived from knowing how the 4 vector you've mentioned (A) transforms, and how it relates to EM fields. If you've seen these, you can definitely use them to show that E.B is invariant.
 
Last edited:
  • #10
Fixed your tex -

[tex]c \vec{B}^\prime_\perp = \gamma_0 (c \vec{B}_\perp - \vec{\beta}_0 \times \vec{E}_\perp)[/tex]
 

1. How is the dot product of electric and magnetic field conserved in special relativity?

In special relativity, the dot product of electric and magnetic fields is conserved because the laws of electromagnetism are invariant under Lorentz transformations. This means that the dot product remains the same in all reference frames, regardless of their relative motion.

2. What is the significance of the dot product of electric and magnetic field in special relativity?

The dot product of electric and magnetic fields is significant in special relativity because it is a fundamental quantity in the equations that describe electromagnetic phenomena. It is also a key factor in the Lorentz force law, which explains the interaction between charged particles and electromagnetic fields.

3. Can the dot product of electric and magnetic field be zero in special relativity?

Yes, the dot product of electric and magnetic fields can be zero in special relativity. This occurs when the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other, and is known as the transverse nature of electromagnetic waves. In this case, the energy of the electromagnetic wave is completely contained in the electric and magnetic fields.

4. How does the dot product of electric and magnetic field change in special relativity?

The dot product of electric and magnetic fields does not change in special relativity. This is because it is a Lorentz invariant quantity, meaning it remains the same in all inertial reference frames. However, the individual electric and magnetic fields may appear to be different in different reference frames due to the effects of length contraction and time dilation.

5. Can the dot product of electric and magnetic field be negative in special relativity?

Yes, the dot product of electric and magnetic fields can be negative in special relativity. This can occur when the electric and magnetic fields are not perpendicular to each other, and the angle between them is greater than 90 degrees. In this case, the dot product represents the amount of work done by the electric and magnetic fields on a charged particle, and the negative sign indicates that the work is being done in the opposite direction of the particle's motion.

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