- #1
erjkism
- 54
- 0
the answer to [tex]\int\frac{1}{x}(dx)[/tex] is lnx +c. but if you do it with integration by parts, you end up with
[tex]\int\frac{1}{x}(dx)[/tex] = 1 + [tex]\int\frac{1}{x}(dx)[/tex]
which comes to 0=1. why does this happen?
[tex]\int\frac{1}{x}(dx)[/tex] = 1 + [tex]\int\frac{1}{x}(dx)[/tex]
which comes to 0=1. why does this happen?