Two general questions about wave functions

In summary, the wave function y(x,t) = sin(ωt - kx + ∅) represents a wave traveling in the +x direction, while y(x,t) = sin(-kx + ωt + ∅) represents a wave traveling in the -x direction. The direction of propagation is determined by the signs of k and ω, with the ratio of ω/k representing the propagation velocity. Additionally, the placement of t or x first in the equation affects the phase of the wave.
  • #1
fazio93
3
0
In my Physics I class, we started learning about wave functions in the form:

y(x,t) = sin(kx ± ωt ± ∅) or y(x,t) = cos(kx ± ωt ± ∅)


1) I saw a question where the wave function was structured as:

y(x,t) = sin(ωt - kx + ∅)

and the answers for the direction of the wave was in the +x direction.

I thought I could rewrite the equation as y(x,t) = sin(-kx + ωt + ∅), meaning the direction is in the -x direction, as the symbol preceding the "ω" is positive. Obviously that was wrong, so how does it actually work?

--------

2) Also, just a random question I was wondering:

If the derivative with respect to t (holding x constant) of the equations above give you the speed of a particle in the wave, what does the derivative with respect to x give you?

Thanks
 
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  • #2
fazio93 said:
In my Physics I class, we started learning about wave functions in the form:

y(x,t) = sin(kx ± ωt ± ∅) or y(x,t) = cos(kx ± ωt ± ∅)1) I saw a question where the wave function was structured as:

y(x,t) = sin(ωt - kx + ∅)

and the answers for the direction of the wave was in the +x direction.

I thought I could rewrite the equation as y(x,t) = sin(-kx + ωt + ∅), meaning the direction is in the -x direction, as the symbol preceding the "ω" is positive. Obviously that was wrong, so how does it actually work?

Propagation velocity is related to [itex]k[/itex] and [itex]\omega[/itex] through:
[itex]v = \omega/k[/itex]. So if you switch the sign of both [itex]\omega[/itex] and [itex]k[/itex], the sign of the velocity remains the same.
 
  • #3
A subsidiary question: I've always preferred the 't first' version, y = A sin (wt - kx + phi), which is so clearly an oscillation (wrt time), with a phase that lags further and further behind with distance traveled by the wave. Yet most writers seem to prefer the 'x first' version. Why is this?
 
  • #4
stevendaryl said:
Propagation velocity is related to [itex]k[/itex] and [itex]\omega[/itex] through:
[itex]v = \omega/k[/itex]. So if you switch the sign of both [itex]\omega[/itex] and [itex]k[/itex], the sign of the velocity remains the same.

oh, ok.
so basically if either the k or ω is negative that would make it +x direction, so:

y(x,t) = sin(ωt - kx + ∅) == y(x,t) = sin(kx - ωt + ∅)
 
  • #5
fazio93 said:
oh, ok.
so basically if either the k or ω is negative that would make it +x direction, so:

y(x,t) = sin(ωt - kx + ∅) == y(x,t) = sin(kx - ωt + ∅)

Yeah, except that
[itex] sin(\omega t - k x + \Phi) = sin(k x - \omega t + \Phi')[/itex]
where [itex]\Phi' = \pi - \Phi[/itex].
 
  • #6
ok, i got it.
thanks :)
 

1. What is a wave function?

A wave function is a mathematical expression that describes the quantum state of a system. It contains information about the position, momentum, and energy of a particle.

2. How is a wave function related to quantum mechanics?

In quantum mechanics, the wave function is used to calculate the probability of a particle's behavior. It is a fundamental concept that helps to understand the behavior of particles on a quantum level.

3. Can a wave function be observed?

No, a wave function cannot be observed directly. It is a mathematical concept that represents the quantum state of a system. However, the effects of a wave function can be observed through experiments and measurements.

4. What is the Schrödinger equation and how does it relate to wave functions?

The Schrödinger equation is a fundamental equation in quantum mechanics that describes how a wave function evolves over time. It relates to wave functions by providing a way to calculate the state of a system at any given time.

5. Can two particles have the same wave function?

Yes, two particles can have the same wave function if they are in an identical quantum state. This is known as quantum entanglement and is a phenomenon where the state of one particle is dependent on the state of the other, even when they are physically separated.

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