Atwood Machine Help: Magnitude of T When M1 Goes to Infinity

In summary, when an atwood machine has two masses at its ends, the tension in the rope is the force exerted by the string on the masses. The tension is greater for the mass that is falling than for the mass that is going up.
  • #1
Meteo
13
0
An atwood machine holds two masses at its ends by a massless rope. m1 and m2. Assume the pully is frictionless.
What will the magnitude of the tension(T) go to as m1 goes to infinity but m2 stays the same?
Im very lost on this problem. I have drawn a free body diagram showing m1g and m2g pointing downwards and T pointing upwards.

I have derived two equations

[tex]m_1g-T=-m_1a[/tex] where m1 is going down. I subtracted T from m1g because m1g is much bigger.
[tex]T-m_2g=m_2a[/tex] where m2 is going up. I did this because T should be greater than m2g. i think.
but apparently that's not right, and I don't know why.
 
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  • #2
You need to analyze your free body diagram a little more carefully!

Alternatively, you should realize that in the limit of large [itex]m_1[/itex], [itex]m_2[/itex] will be accelerated upward at a rate g, i.e. it pulls on the string with a force equal to [itex]m_2 g[/itex] due to the acceleration. That, plus its weight, gives you the tension.
 
  • #3
why is m2 accelerated upwards at g?
its weight will be m2g... so [tex]T=2m_2g[/tex]?

I think I am comfused on what tension is...so the force of it pulling up and the force of the weight pulling down = tension?
 
  • #4
Tide was talking about the limiting case as m1 gets very large. Suppose m1 were 30,000 tons and m2 were 2 ounces. Can you see that m2 would make very little difference in that case? So, for all practical purposes, m2 would accelerate upwards at g because m1 would accelerate downwards at g.

As for what tension is - well, you can consider it a force exerted by the rope. It'll pull both m1 and m2 upwards - exactly how much depends on how m1 and m2 pull downward on their ends.

Go back and do as Tide suggested - analyze the free body diagram. But when you do it, try to picture it as a physical system rather than just a system of equations. If the math confuses you, the physics will always pull you out. Just ask yourself what should happen.
 
  • #5
[itex]m_2[/itex] is accelerated upward at g because it offers negligible resistance to [itex]m_1[/itex] falling.

The tension is the force exerted by the string on the mass. The forces acting on the mass are the tension and force of gravity so [itex]T - m_2 g = m_2 a[/itex]. But a = g, therefore ...!
 
  • #6
Meteo,

Listen to Diane - she's good! :)
 
  • #7
How does one blush online? :)
 
  • #8
Like this? :blushing:

I didn't mean to make you blush - just offering some sound advice! :smile:
 

1. What is an Atwood machine?

An Atwood machine is a simple mechanical device that consists of two masses connected by a string or rope that passes over a pulley. It is used to demonstrate the principles of mechanical equilibrium and can be used to measure the acceleration due to gravity.

2. What is the magnitude of T when M1 goes to infinity?

When M1 (the heavier mass) goes to infinity, the magnitude of tension in the string becomes equal to the weight of M2 (the lighter mass). This is because the heavier mass exerts an infinite force on the string, causing the lighter mass to accelerate downward at the rate of gravity.

3. How does the magnitude of T change when M1 goes to infinity?

The magnitude of tension in the string increases as M1 increases, and when M1 goes to infinity, the tension becomes equal to the weight of M2. This is because the weight of the heavier mass is infinite, causing an infinite force on the string, and the tension must balance this force to maintain equilibrium.

4. What is the relationship between M1 and T in an Atwood machine?

The tension in the string is directly proportional to the mass of M1. As M1 increases, the tension also increases. However, when M1 goes to infinity, the tension becomes equal to the weight of M2, and the relationship between M1 and T becomes irrelevant.

5. What happens to the acceleration of M2 when M1 goes to infinity?

When M1 goes to infinity, the acceleration of M2 becomes equal to the acceleration due to gravity, g. This is because M1 exerts an infinite force on the string, causing M2 to accelerate downward at a constant rate. This also means that the acceleration of M2 becomes independent of its mass, as the infinite force from M1 overpowers any effects of M2's mass.

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