Why are the Constants e and pi Linked in the Equation e^(i*pi)+1=0?

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In summary, the conversation discusses the connection between e and pi, and how their relationship is surprising and a testament to the underlying unity of mathematics. The identity e^{i\pi}=-1 is explained geometrically, and the ideas of complex numbers and exponentiation are used to show the link between e and the trigonometric functions. The conversation concludes with the idea that this is just one example of the deep underlying unity of mathematics.
  • #1
jsmith
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I will first say that I fully understand how to prove this equation from the use of power series, what I am interested in though is why e and pi should be linked like they are. As far as I know pi comes from geometry (although it does have an equivalent analytical definition), and e comes from calculus. I cannot see any reason why they should be linked and the proof doesn't really give any insights as to why the equation works. Is there some nice way of explaining this?
 
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  • #2
It's just a special case of ##\exp(ix) = \cos x + i\sin x## at x=pi.

The Taylor expansions of the exponential function and the trigonometric functions are very similar. The Taylor series of sin(x) is very similar to odd terms of the Taylor series of exp(x). The only difference is that the sine series alternates in sign. The same is true for the Taylor series of cos(x) and the even terms of the Taylor series of exp(x). There's obviously a connection between the exponential function and those trigonometric functions.

Those sign alternations vanish when one looks at exp(ix) as opposed to exp(x). The real and imaginary parts of exp(ix) are the trigonometric functions.
 
  • #3
If you look at the complex plane, then exp(ix) represents points on the unit circle. When x = π, the point on the circle is -1.
 
  • #4
jsmith said:
I will first say that I fully understand how to prove this equation from the use of power series, what I am interested in though is why e and pi should be linked like they are. As far as I know pi comes from geometry (although it does have an equivalent analytical definition), and e comes from calculus. I cannot see any reason why they should be linked and the proof doesn't really give any insights as to why the equation works. Is there some nice way of explaining this?

It's astonishing, isn't it? This is one of many examples of the deep underlying unity of mathematics. As you continue to study mathematics, you will find other examples of seemingly unrelated things which turn out to have an underlying connection. It always reminds me of the fable of the blind men and the elephant. Each branch of mathematics that we study is just a piece of a unified whole.
 
  • #5
A geometric way to think of the identity [itex] e^{i\pi}=-1 [/itex] is that magnitudes multiply and arguments add when multiplying complex numbers.

[tex] e^{i\pi}= \lim_{n \to \infty} (1+\frac{i\pi}{n})^n= \lim_{n \to \infty} (\sqrt{1+(\frac{\pi^2}{n^2})}z)^n [/tex]

where [itex] z [/itex] is a complex number with unit magnitude and argument [itex] \frac{\pi}{n} [/itex] (equal to ([itex] cos\frac{\pi}{n})+isin(\frac{\pi}{n})[/itex]).

So, [tex] \lim_{n \to \infty} (\sqrt{1+\frac{\pi^2}{n^2}}z)^n= \lim_{n \to \infty} (1+(\frac{\pi^2}{n^2}))^\frac{n}{2}z^n=\lim_{n \to \infty} z^n [/tex]. Since [itex] z [/itex] has magnitude 1 and argument [itex] \frac{\pi}{n} [/itex], the limit has magnitude 1 and argument [itex] \pi [/itex].

Therefore [itex] e^{i\pi}=-1 [/itex].

Note: I adapted this argument from The Princeton Companion to Mathematics. I thought it was neat and that I should share it. Choosing a general angle instead of [itex] \pi [/itex] gives the more general formula [itex] e^{i\theta}=cos\theta + isin\theta [/itex].
 
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  • #6
The fact that we don't see any reason why the two (or three!) concepts should be linked is what makes the equality so famous.

There is a deep, underlying unity in a lot of math, that may be hard to see as long as we look at these things from a viewpoint of what problems they were invented to solve.
 
  • #7
Thanks for the replies. I do understand fully why this identity holds. I guess my question is why should a completely geometric concept (pi) be linked so nicely with a completely analytical constant (e). Thinking about it I am wondering if this is anything to do with the fact that e is defined by e^x is its own derivative, and using the geometric interpretation of differentiation? Does this somehow give a link between e^x and the trig functions?
 
  • #8
I thought about this a lot too once, though the best I could come up with is like this. Multiplying by i turns a number 90 degrees around the complex plane. Exponentiation with real multiples of i is essentially continuous multiplication such that you are "smoothly" turning around the complex plane in a spiral shape. As mathman said:

mathman said:
If you look at the complex plane, then exp(ix) represents points on the unit circle. When x = π, the point on the circle is -1.

So e^ix is a spiral that turns around the unit circle at a "natural" rate of e (whatever that means :P). And turning at this "natural" rate is complemented by pi which is half the circumference of the unit circle. Just my two cents.
 
  • #9
phyzguy said:
It's astonishing, isn't it? This is one of many examples of the deep underlying unity of mathematics. As you continue to study mathematics, you will find other examples of seemingly unrelated things which turn out to have an underlying connection. It always reminds me of the fable of the blind men and the elephant. Each branch of mathematics that we study is just a piece of a unified whole.

Considering math is one giant tautology, why do you find its underlying unity surprising?
 

1. What is the significance of e^(i*pi) in mathematics?

The expression e^(i*pi) is known as Euler's identity and is considered one of the most elegant and profound equations in mathematics. It connects three fundamental mathematical constants: e (Euler's number), pi (the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter), and i (the imaginary unit).

2. Why does e^(i*pi)+1 equal 0?

The reason e^(i*pi)+1 equals 0 is due to the properties of the complex exponential function and the definition of the imaginary unit i. When we plug in pi for the variable in the equation e^(ix), we get cos(x) + i*sin(x), which becomes cos(pi) + i*sin(pi). Since cos(pi) = -1 and sin(pi) = 0, we are left with -1 + i*0, which simplifies to -1. Adding 1 to this gives us the final result of 0.

3. Can you provide a real-world application of e^(i*pi)?

One real-world application of e^(i*pi) is in signal processing and electrical engineering. The complex exponential function is used to represent alternating current (AC) signals, which are commonly used in electronics. The imaginary unit i is used to represent the phase shift of the signal, and the constant pi is used to calculate the frequency of the signal.

4. How does e^(i*pi) relate to the unit circle?

The unit circle is a circle with a radius of 1 centered at the origin on a Cartesian coordinate system. The equation e^(i*pi) can be represented on the unit circle as the point (-1, 0). This is because the cosine of pi is -1 and the sine of pi is 0, making (-1, 0) the coordinates for the point on the unit circle at pi radians.

5. Is there a geometric interpretation of e^(i*pi)?

Yes, there is a geometric interpretation of e^(i*pi). The expression e^(i*pi) can be thought of as a rotation of the radius vector on the unit circle by an angle of pi radians. This can be visualized by drawing a right triangle from the origin to the point (-1, 0) on the unit circle, with the hypotenuse representing the radius vector. The angle between the hypotenuse and the x-axis is pi radians, and the length of the hypotenuse is 1, making e^(i*pi) equal to -1.

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