- #1
sidm
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I need help.
So the obvious answer is no, because it's not integrally closed (incidentally it's integral closure is in fact k[x]. Here obviously k is a field. But I want to show that it is both noetherian and dimension 1 (nonzero prime ideals are maximal), here is my idea for a proof: (i immediately apologize for the fact that I've forgotten how to tex on this forum)
1) Noetherian: k[x^2]<R<k[x] and k[x] is a finitely generated k[x^2] module (i.e. 1 and x generate k[x] as a k[x^2]-module) thus it is a noetherian k[x^2]-module since it is therefore the quotient of a free k[x^2]-module of finite rank. So if we take I<R an ideal of R (i.e. a R-submodule of R) then it is also a k[x^2]-submodule of R and therefore of k[x], thus it must be finitely generated as k[x^2]-module and so a (k[x^2,x^3]=)R -module as well.
2) B=k[x^3]<k[x^2,x^3]=A, then let P be a prime in A then P' the contraction in B. Note that contractions of primes are always prime and since B is a PID (it is in fact euclidean*) as long as we can prove the contraction is nonzero maximality follows.
It is nonzero since A is integral over B: x^2 satisfies Z^3-(x^3)^2 a monic polynomial with coefficients in B. Then let c \in P \neq 0 we know that c satisfies a monic polynomial over B and so
c^n+b_{n-1}c^{n-1}+...+a_0=0, we can assume a_0\neq 0 for otherwise factor out by the largest power of c that divides this equation and use the fact that we're in an integral domain. Then c^n+...+ca_1=-a_0 \in P \cap B.
Then B/P' is a field, K, living inside the integral domain A/P. Clearly A/P is algebraic over K: let y^2 denote the image of x^2 then it satisfies the polynomial Z^3-(y^3)^2 with coefficients in K (note y^3 is the image of x^3 in K). Now to finish we prove an unrelated result:
3) Every integral domain (R) containing a field (K) over which it itself is algebraic is a field: Let b \in R be nonzero, then R is a n-dimensional K-space. So then 1,b,..,b^n are linearly dependent over K: k_0+k_1b...+k_nb^n=0 so that b(b^{n-1}k_n+...+k_1)=k_0, if k_0 is zero then the polynomial in in brackets is zero but the 1,...,b^{n-1} are linearly independent so the k_i's are all zero but we chose them not to be. So k_0 is nonzero and in K and thus b has an inverse in B.
If someone could check my argument I would appreciate it, a simpler one would be nice too. A side note: I'm currently teaching myself algebraic number theory (using James Milne's notes) and if anyone would like to work with me let me know!
SM
So the obvious answer is no, because it's not integrally closed (incidentally it's integral closure is in fact k[x]. Here obviously k is a field. But I want to show that it is both noetherian and dimension 1 (nonzero prime ideals are maximal), here is my idea for a proof: (i immediately apologize for the fact that I've forgotten how to tex on this forum)
1) Noetherian: k[x^2]<R<k[x] and k[x] is a finitely generated k[x^2] module (i.e. 1 and x generate k[x] as a k[x^2]-module) thus it is a noetherian k[x^2]-module since it is therefore the quotient of a free k[x^2]-module of finite rank. So if we take I<R an ideal of R (i.e. a R-submodule of R) then it is also a k[x^2]-submodule of R and therefore of k[x], thus it must be finitely generated as k[x^2]-module and so a (k[x^2,x^3]=)R -module as well.
2) B=k[x^3]<k[x^2,x^3]=A, then let P be a prime in A then P' the contraction in B. Note that contractions of primes are always prime and since B is a PID (it is in fact euclidean*) as long as we can prove the contraction is nonzero maximality follows.
It is nonzero since A is integral over B: x^2 satisfies Z^3-(x^3)^2 a monic polynomial with coefficients in B. Then let c \in P \neq 0 we know that c satisfies a monic polynomial over B and so
c^n+b_{n-1}c^{n-1}+...+a_0=0, we can assume a_0\neq 0 for otherwise factor out by the largest power of c that divides this equation and use the fact that we're in an integral domain. Then c^n+...+ca_1=-a_0 \in P \cap B.
Then B/P' is a field, K, living inside the integral domain A/P. Clearly A/P is algebraic over K: let y^2 denote the image of x^2 then it satisfies the polynomial Z^3-(y^3)^2 with coefficients in K (note y^3 is the image of x^3 in K). Now to finish we prove an unrelated result:
3) Every integral domain (R) containing a field (K) over which it itself is algebraic is a field: Let b \in R be nonzero, then R is a n-dimensional K-space. So then 1,b,..,b^n are linearly dependent over K: k_0+k_1b...+k_nb^n=0 so that b(b^{n-1}k_n+...+k_1)=k_0, if k_0 is zero then the polynomial in in brackets is zero but the 1,...,b^{n-1} are linearly independent so the k_i's are all zero but we chose them not to be. So k_0 is nonzero and in K and thus b has an inverse in B.
If someone could check my argument I would appreciate it, a simpler one would be nice too. A side note: I'm currently teaching myself algebraic number theory (using James Milne's notes) and if anyone would like to work with me let me know!
SM