Solve Definite Integrals: 1/(1+cosx)dx from 0 to pi/2

In summary, the conversation discusses a problem involving the integral from 0 to half pi of 1/(1+cosx)dx. Multiple methods are suggested, including using the relation \cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2} and converting the integral to \int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx. However, it is ultimately determined that the function is divergent and the area does not exist. Further clarification or explanation is needed for a definitive answer.
  • #1
Leaping antalope
44
0
can anyone help me with this problem...
the integral from 0 to half pi: 1/(1+cosx)dx...
Thanks...
 
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  • #2
Hint use the relation:
[tex]\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}[/tex]
 
  • #3
from my perspective, that problem would be very hard to solve without changing it somehow. try multiplying the top and bottom by (1-cos x) and see what happens. remember that sin^2 x + cos^2 x = 1.

that is the method i used, but it did require me to use the reduction formula on one of the integrals. hopefully that helps, thought it may not be the inteded method.
 
  • #4
so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...
 
  • #5
Leaping antalope said:
so 1/(1+cosx)=(1-cosx)/(1-cos^2x)=(1-cosx)/sin^2x=(1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x)...
Aha~now i get it
the integration of 1/sin^2x is -cotx, and cosx/sin^2x=cosx*sin^(-2)x, and the integral of this is -1/sinx
so the integration of 1/(1+cosx) is -cotx+1/sinx, but now i have a problem, cot(half pi) does not exist...
help still needed...

i forgot that the derivative of cot is -csc^2. you don't need the reduction formula after all! i worked this out and i got

1/sin x - cot x
or
1/sin x - cos x/sin x

the problem is when it approaches zero, not pi/2. to me it looks like this is divergent, thus there is no definant area (as it approaches zero from the right, 1/sin x approaches infinity).

maybe i did something wrong, but the math looks correct. as a forewarning I'm just finishing the last chapter in calc 2 in college, so I'm not a math guru.

edit: i don't remember if limit laws dictate that you could say infinity minus infinity equals a total of zero. that could be it's been almost a year since i took calc 1. if so, you'd have (1-0)-(infinity - infinity = 0) = 1 unit^2.

i don't know when i get problems wrong on tests its usually due to magic algebra, that could be a case of it right there. i'd look it up but i need to finish writing up my lab for this evening.
 
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  • #6
The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...
 
  • #7
Leaping antalope said:
The answer is 1. Or maybe we should convert (1/sin^2x)-(cosx/sin^2x) so that we can substitute half pi and 0 in it...not sure...

well, sin of 0 is 0, so either way you're dividing both by zero. the only thing i can figure out is that you do it as an improper integral and the infinities cancel each other.
 
  • #8
arildno said:
Hint use the relation:
[tex]\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})=\frac{1+\cos(x)}{2}[/tex]

I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]

and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

regards
marlon
 
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  • #9
marlon said:
I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]

and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

regards
marlon

that is clever, i didn't remember that identity. but you aren't finished. remember that the integral is from 0 to pi/2. under that integral the function is divergent, thus the area doesn't exist. right? (lim t---> pi/2 [tan x] from 0 to t) sin x /cos x -- as x approaches pi/2, thus cos x = 0, bad things happen.

also divergent by relation to 1/cos x isn't it?

if anyone has a certain answer, please elucidate! (no mathmatica at home :( )
 
  • #10
marlon said:
I suggest you use the advice of arildno. It will be the best way to solve this.

[tex]\int\frac{2}{\cos(x)+1}*dx = \int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(\frac{x}{2})} * dx[/tex]

and you know that [tex]dx = 2*d(\frac{x}{2})[/tex]
and
[tex]\int\frac{1}{\cos^{2}(x)} = \tan(x)[/tex]

regards
marlon

edit: nevermind, i thought you were saying the answer was tan x. disregard this and above message!
 
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1. What is a definite integral?

A definite integral is a mathematical concept used in calculus to find the area under a curve between two specific points on the x-axis. In other words, it is a way to calculate the total accumulation of a function over a given interval.

2. How do you solve definite integrals?

To solve a definite integral, you can use various techniques such as substitution, integration by parts, or trigonometric identities. In this specific problem, we can use the substitution method to simplify the integral.

3. What is the substitution method?

The substitution method is a technique used in integration to simplify the integral by substituting a variable with a new expression. In this problem, we can use the substitution u = 1 + cosx to simplify the integral.

4. How do you apply the substitution method to this problem?

To apply the substitution method, we first substitute u = 1 + cosx in the integral, which gives us the integral of 1/u du from 0 to pi/2. Then, we can use the power rule for integrals to solve the integral, which gives us ln(1+cosx) evaluated from 0 to pi/2. Finally, we substitute back the original variable x to get the final answer.

5. What is the final solution to this definite integral?

The final solution to this definite integral is ln(2) - ln(1/2) which simplifies to ln(4). This means the area under the curve of 1/(1+cosx) from 0 to pi/2 is ln(4) units squared.

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